Three hours after self-administering regular insulin subcutaneously, the client contacts you at the provider's office by telephone to report that she is shaking, sweating, and has a rapid pulse. Which of the following actions should you NOT advise her to take? (Select All That Apply.)
Take an oral hypoglycemic agent.
Self-administer a long-acting insulin.
Check her blood glucose level.
Drink 4 ounces of orange juice.
Correct Answer : A,B
A. Taking an oral hypoglycemic agent is inappropriate in this situation. Oral agents are typically used for long-term management of type 2 diabetes and would not help in an acute hypoglycemic episode.
B. Self-administering a long-acting insulin would further lower blood glucose levels and exacerbate the hypoglycemic symptoms, making this an unsafe action.
C. Checking her blood glucose level is an appropriate first step to confirm the suspected hypoglycemia and determine the severity.
D. Drinking 4 ounces of orange juice is a correct intervention, as it provides a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar level and alleviate symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and prolonged QT interval." This is correct. Metoclopramide (Reglan) can cause side effects such as tardive dyskinesia, a movement disorder, and may prolong the QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias.
B. "The IV form of this medication is used for control of postoperative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as facilitation of small bowel intubation and examination of the GI tract." This is correct. The IV form of metoclopramide is commonly used for these indications, particularly for nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy or surgery, as well as aiding in small bowel intubation.
C. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and sedation." This is correct. In addition to tardive dyskinesia, metoclopramide can also cause sedation, making patients feel drowsy or lethargic.
D. "The oral form is used for diabetic gastroparesis (delayed stomach emptying with gas and bloating) and management of GERD through its ability to increase gastric motility." This is correct. The oral form of metoclopramide is frequently used to treat diabetic gastroparesis by improving gastric emptying, as well as managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by enhancing motility.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prolonged QT interval – This is correct. Ondansetron can cause prolongation of the QT interval, increasing the risk of arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes. This is a serious complication that requires monitoring, particularly in clients with cardiac risks.
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms – This is incorrect. Ondansetron does not typically cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more associated with dopamine antagonists like metoclopramide or prochlorperazine.
C. Nausea – This is incorrect. Ondansetron is specifically used to treat nausea and vomiting, not to cause them. If nausea persists, it may indicate treatment failure or another underlying issue.
D. Vomiting – This is incorrect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and works to prevent vomiting. Vomiting would not be a complication of this medication under proper use.
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