A client with sickle cell anemia has "Pain related to thrombotic crisis" as a nursing diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this diagnosis?
Explain disease course and expected signs and symptoms to the family.
Check peripheral pulses, color, and temperature of extremities every 30 hours.
Reposition the client, paying close attention to proper body alignment.
Provide active range of motion (ROM) every 2 hours.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Explain disease course and expected signs and symptoms to the family. While education is essential, it is not directly related to addressing the acute pain associated with thrombotic crisis.
B. Check peripheral pulses, color, and temperature of extremities every 30 hours. This intervention is important for assessing peripheral perfusion but may not directly address the acute pain associated with thrombotic crisis.
C. Reposition the client, paying close attention to proper body alignment. Repositioning the client to ensure proper body alignment can help alleviate pressure points and discomfort associated with thrombotic crisis.
D. Provide active range of motion (ROM) every 2 hours. While ROM exercises are important for preventing complications such as joint stiffness, they may not directly address the acute pain associated with thrombotic crisis.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Severe pain in the abdomen and joints. Severe pain is the hallmark symptom of a sickle cell crisis, often occurring in the abdomen, joints, and bones due to vaso-occlusive events.
B. Fever and chills. While fever can be a sign of infection in individuals with sickle cell disease, it is not the most common symptom during a sickle cell crisis.
C. Cough and shortness of breath. These symptoms are more indicative of respiratory infections or complications like acute chest syndrome but are not the primary symptoms of a sickle cell crisis.
D. Numbness and tingling in the extremities. These symptoms are not typically associated with a sickle cell crisis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Raloxifene hydrochloride is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that is used for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures by acting similarly to estrogen in some tissues and antagonizing estrogen in others.
B. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication used to treat hypothyroidism, not osteoporosis.
C. Escitalopram oxalate is an antidepressant medication used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not osteoporosis.
D. Calcitonin is a hormone involved in calcium regulation, and calcitonin nasal spray is sometimes used in the treatment of osteoporosis, but it is not typically the first-line treatment option.
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