A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Pre-Renal

Super-secret double renal failure

Post-Renal

Intra-Renal

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood ﬂow or hydration aﬀecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine ﬂow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic eﬀects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Enhancing the formation of granulation tissue is not the immediate expected outcome of an escharotomy.

Choice B reason: Ensuring brisk bleeding is not the goal; minimal bleeding is expected, and it should be controlled to maintain ﬂuid volume status.

Choice C reason: Ensuring the return of distal pulses is the expected outcome of an escharotomy, as it relieves pressure and restores circulation to the aﬀected limbs.

Choice D reason: Decreasing edema formation is a benefit of the procedure but not the primary expected outcome.

A. Inquire about the patient's use of NSAIDs and analgesics to manage pain. B. Reassure the patient that bone pain is expected with this disease. C. Suggest the use of a back brace to reduce pain. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the onset of new pain.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: While it is useful to know the patient's current pain management strategies, new onset severe back pain could indicate a serious complication such as a spinal fracture or compression, which requires immediate attention.

Choice B reason: Reassuring the patient is not appropriate without further assessment, as new onset severe pain could signify a serious issue that needs to be addressed.

Choice C reason: Suggesting a back brace may be part of the management plan, but it should not precede notifying the healthcare provider of new severe pain.

Choice D reason: Notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action because new onset severe back pain in a patient with multiple myeloma could indicate a serious condition such as a spinal fracture or compression, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment.

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A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing to assist the burn surgeon in performing an escharotomy for a patient who has full-thickness circumferential burns that resulted in compartment syndrome. The nurse understands that the expected outcome of this procedure is to:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient with multiple myeloma calls the home health nurse complaining of severe back pain of new onset. The appropriate response by the nurse is to do which of the following?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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