A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Pre-Renal

Super-secret double renal failure

Post-Renal

Intra-Renal

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood ﬂow or hydration aﬀecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine ﬂow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic eﬀects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: While having at least one stool per day is a sign that lactulose is working, it does not directly indicate its eﬀectiveness in reducing ammonia levels and improving mental status.

Choice B reason: Denial of nausea and vomiting is positive but is not a direct indicator of lactulose's eﬀectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

Choice C reason: A decrease in bilirubin levels may be a positive sign, but it is not a direct indicator of lactulose's eﬀectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

Choice D reason: The client being alert and oriented is a direct indicator that lactulose is eﬀectively reducing ammonia levels and improving mental status, which is a key goal in treating hepatic encephalopathy associated with liver cirrhosis.

A. Inadequate retention of serum sodium (Na). B. Inadequate production of erythropoietin. C. Blood loss in the urine. D. Renal desensitization to Vitamin D.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Inadequate retention of serum sodium is not typically associated with anemia in chronic renal failure.

Choice B reason: Inadequate production of erythropoietin is the correct answer because the kidneys produce erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys cannot produce enough erythropoietin, leading to anemia.

Choice C reason: While blood loss in the urine can occur, it is not the primary cause of anemia in chronic renal failure.

Choice D reason: Renal desensitization to Vitamin D aﬀects bone health and calcium levels but is not the primary cause of anemia in chronic renal failure.

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A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following indicate to the nurse that lactulose is eﬀective for an older adult who has advanced liver cirrhosis?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who has chronic renal failure and has been on dialysis for 2 years has been wondering why he is anemic. The nurse explains that anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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