A client with severe nausea has a one time order for ondansetron (Zofran) 8 mg IVPB to be administered over 15 minutes. The medication is diluted in 50 mL of D5W. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should be given?
The Correct Answer is ["50"]
To calculate the drops per minute for the ondansetron infusion, we need to use the formula:
drops per minute = (volume in mL x drop factor) / time in minutes
In this case, the volume is 50 mL, the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time is 15 minutes. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
drops per minute = (50 x 15) / 15
drops per minute = 750 / 15
drops per minute = 50
Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 50 drops per minute of ondansetron to the client with severe nausea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. A diagnosis of hypertension requires two or more elevated readings taken by your physician before a diagnosis can be made."
This response emphasizes the need for multiple elevated readings for a diagnosis of hypertension. It educates the individual about the diagnostic criteria and encourages them to seek further evaluation from their physician.
B. "We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because your age places you at high risk for hypertension."
This response might be seen as implying that age alone is a significant factor in determining hypertension, which may not be accurate. While age is a risk factor, the emphasis should be on the need for multiple readings and a physician's evaluation rather than attributing it solely to age.
C. "Hypertension is prevalent among men: it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination."
This response suggests that the elevated blood pressure is automatically assumed to be hypertension based on gender. It is important to avoid making assumptions and instead focus on the need for proper evaluation and multiple readings for a hypertension diagnosis.
D. "You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested."
This response dismisses the individual's concerns and attributes the elevated blood pressure solely to the testing situation. While stress or anxiety can influence blood pressure readings, it's essential to address the need for further evaluation and not completely disregard the possibility of hypertension.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client now has developed a myocardial infarction:
A myocardial infarction (heart attack) is characterized by prolonged ischemia leading to damage or death of heart muscle cells. While the symptoms described could be concerning for a heart attack, the term "myocardial infarction" would typically imply a more sustained and severe ischemic event.
B. The client has developed Prinzmetal's angina:
Prinzmetal's angina, also known as variant angina, is characterized by chest pain that usually occurs at rest and is caused by vasospasm of the coronary arteries. The given scenario does not specifically describe the typical characteristics of Prinzmetal's angina.
C. The client now has stable angina:
Stable angina typically follows a predictable pattern and is relieved with rest and/or nitroglycerin. However, the scenario describes a change in the usual pattern of chest pain.
D. The client now has unstable angina:
Unstable angina is characterized by a change in the usual pattern of stable angina, often occurring at rest or with minimal exertion and not relieved by usual measures. This option seems to align with the information provided.
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