A client with severe nausea has a one time order for ondansetron (Zofran) 8 mg IVPB to be administered over 15 minutes. The medication is diluted in 50 mL of D5W. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should be given?
The Correct Answer is ["50"]
To calculate the drops per minute for the ondansetron infusion, we need to use the formula:
drops per minute = (volume in mL x drop factor) / time in minutes
In this case, the volume is 50 mL, the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time is 15 minutes. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
drops per minute = (50 x 15) / 15
drops per minute = 750 / 15
drops per minute = 50
Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 50 drops per minute of ondansetron to the client with severe nausea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Normal sinus rhythm that becomes sinus tachycardia
Sinus tachycardia can be an indication of increased sympathetic activity in response to decreased cardiac output. It may suggest the heart's compensatory response to maintain adequate perfusion.
B. Onset of a cough with pink, frothy sputum
Pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, which can occur in the setting of worsening heart failure. It indicates the presence of blood-tinged fluid in the alveoli.
C. Presence of dyspnea at rest
Dyspnea at rest suggests that the client is experiencing difficulty breathing even without physical exertion. This can be indicative of more severe heart failure.
D. Falls asleep when not disturbed
Falling asleep when not disturbed may indicate fatigue or exhaustion, which is common in individuals with heart failure. However, it is not a direct indicator of worsening heart failure and can be influenced by various factors.
E. Urine drainage is increased in amount
Increased urine output can be a sign of diuretic therapy or an attempt by the body to compensate for fluid overload. However, it is essential to consider other factors such as renal function and medication effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. A diagnosis of hypertension requires two or more elevated readings taken by your physician before a diagnosis can be made."
This response emphasizes the need for multiple elevated readings for a diagnosis of hypertension. It educates the individual about the diagnostic criteria and encourages them to seek further evaluation from their physician.
B. "We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because your age places you at high risk for hypertension."
This response might be seen as implying that age alone is a significant factor in determining hypertension, which may not be accurate. While age is a risk factor, the emphasis should be on the need for multiple readings and a physician's evaluation rather than attributing it solely to age.
C. "Hypertension is prevalent among men: it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination."
This response suggests that the elevated blood pressure is automatically assumed to be hypertension based on gender. It is important to avoid making assumptions and instead focus on the need for proper evaluation and multiple readings for a hypertension diagnosis.
D. "You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested."
This response dismisses the individual's concerns and attributes the elevated blood pressure solely to the testing situation. While stress or anxiety can influence blood pressure readings, it's essential to address the need for further evaluation and not completely disregard the possibility of hypertension.
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