A client with a recent exacerbation of heart failure reports to the nurse feeling uncomfortable and anxious, with a sensation of the flopping in the chest. While waiting for an electrocardiogram (ECG), which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Volume of pedal pulses.

Length of capillary refill.

Rhythm of apical pulse.

Degree of skin elasticity.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Rationale

A. In heart failure exacerbation, decreased cardiac output can lead to poor peripheral perfusion, potentially manifesting as weak or diminished pedal pulses. However, in the context of acute symptoms such as palpitations or chest discomfort, assessing the rhythm and rate of central pulses (like the apical pulse) may be more immediate and informative.

B. Capillary refill time assesses peripheral perfusion and can indicate circulatory status. Prolonged capillary refill (>2 seconds) may indicate poor perfusion, which could occur in heart failure exacerbation due to reduced cardiac output. It is a valuable assessment, but in this scenario, focusing on more central aspects such as the heart rhythm is typically more immediate.

C. Assessing the rhythm of the apical pulse is crucial in this scenario. The client's sensation of "flopping" in the chest suggests palpitations or irregular heartbeats, which could indicate arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation or other dysrhythmias.

D. Skin elasticity primarily assesses hydration status and may provide information about overall skin integrity but is less directly related to the acute symptoms described by the client. While important in general assessments, it does not directly address the urgent need to assess for arrhythmias or irregular heartbeats.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale

A. This approach might inadvertently increase feelings of isolation and worsen agitation. Older adults with dementia often benefit from social interaction and engagement. Limiting interaction could lead to increased confusion and behavioral issues.

B. Attempting to correct or argue with the client about their delusions is generally not effective and can escalate agitation. Clients with dementia may not have the cognitive ability to understand or accept reality as others perceive it. Therefore, trying to clarify or correct delusional thoughts is unlikely to be helpful and may increase distress.

C. While maintaining a consistent routine is beneficial for clients with dementia, forcibly awakening the client earlier could disrupt their natural sleep patterns and contribute to increased confusion and agitation. It's important to balance the need for routine with the client's individual sleep and rest patterns.

D. This approach focuses on redirecting the client's attention away from the distressing thoughts and behaviors. Distraction techniques involve engaging the client in activities or topics that they find enjoyable or comforting. Therapeutic communication skills include active listening, empathy, and validating the client's emotions without reinforcing delusions.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

The nurse recognizes that this client is Hemorrhaging due to uterine atony.

Rationale

This client is likely experiencing hemorrhaging, as indicated by the boggy fundus (uterine atony), saturated pad and sheets with blood, and the significant estimated blood loss of 600 mL after delivery. Hemorrhaging refers to excessive bleeding, which can occur due to various reasons in the postpartum period, including uterine atony.

The boggy fundus (uterus) at 1 cm above the umbilicus suggests poor uterine tone, which is indicative of uterine atony. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and occurs when the uterus fails to contract adequately after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client with a recent exacerbation of heart failure reports to the nurse feeling uncomfortable and anxious, with a sensation of the flopping in the chest. While waiting for an electrocardiogram (ECG), which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An older adult client with dementia who is refusing to allow an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist in bathing, is becoming increasingly agitated and stating the UAP "wants to hurt me and tie me up." Which approach should the nurse use with the client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse has reviewed the client's chart. Exhibits Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided. The nurse recognizes that this client is dropdown due to dropdown

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who develops signs and symptoms of septic shock following a urinary tract infection one week ago. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol to be initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

The parent of a 7-month-old brings the infant to the clinic because the skin in the diaper area is excoriated and red, but there are no blisters or bleeding. The parent reports no evidence of watery stools. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement?

The nurse is teaching dietary modifications to a client with hypertension. Which product is the best selection to include as part of the client's lunch?

Which breakfast selection should the nurse recommend for a 16-year-old with diarrhea?

A client arrives at a hurricane disaster medical area seeking treatment for diarrhea. Which source of contamination should the nurse consider when interviewing the client about exposure?