A client with a history of schizophrenia, and drug and alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital for hepatitis. The nurse should contact the healthcare provider before implementing which prescription?

Acetaminophen 650 mg PO PRN.

Olanzapine 30 mg PO at bedtime.

Thiamine, USP 100 mg PO daily.

Ondansetron 8 mg IV PRN.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, metabolized by the liver via cytochrome P450 to NAPQI, which depletes glutathione, causing necrosis in hepatitis. A compromised liver from alcohol or viral hepatitis increases toxicity risk, even at standard doses. Contacting the provider ensures safer analgesics, preventing further liver damage in this high-risk client.

Choice B reason: Olanzapine, an antipsychotic, manages schizophrenia by blocking dopamine D2 receptors. It is metabolized by the liver but has low hepatotoxicity risk compared to acetaminophen in hepatitis. No immediate contraindication exists, as it controls psychosis without significantly worsening liver function, making it safe to administer without delay.

Choice C reason: Thiamine (vitamin B1) is essential in hepatitis, particularly with alcohol abuse, preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy from deficient glucose metabolism. It is liver-safe and beneficial, supporting neurological function without toxicity. Administering thiamine is appropriate, making it unnecessary to contact the provider before implementation.

Choice D reason: Ondansetron, an antiemetic, controls nausea in hepatitis via serotonin 5-HT3 receptor blockade. It is metabolized by the liver but has minimal hepatotoxicity, safe in liver disease. No contraindication exists, as it alleviates symptoms without worsening hepatitis, unlike acetaminophen, which poses significant liver risk.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering an IV narcotic masks pain without addressing its cause. Pain at the PCI site may indicate hematoma or arterial injury, common post-PCI due to vessel trauma and tirofiban’s antiplatelet effects. Assessing the site identifies bleeding, critical to prevent complications like hemorrhage before providing analgesia.

Choice B reason: Adjusting the compression device without assessment risks worsening a hematoma, as excessive pressure impairs flow, while insufficient pressure fails to control bleeding. Tirofiban increases bleeding risk. Assessing for hematoma ensures proper management, preventing vascular complications, making adjustment premature without confirming the pain’s cause.

Choice C reason: Turning to a left side-lying position does not address PCI site pain, potentially from hematoma or arterial injury. Post-PCI, supine positioning minimizes site stress. Assessing for hematoma, exacerbated by tirofiban’s anticoagulation, is critical to detect bleeding, preventing complications like retroperitoneal hemorrhage over positional changes.

Choice D reason: Assessing the femoral PCI site for hematoma is essential, as pain may indicate bleeding, common post-PCI with tirofiban’s platelet inhibition. Hematoma can compress vessels, causing ischemia or rupture, requiring urgent intervention like compression or surgery. This addresses the pathophysiological risk, ensuring vascular stability and patient safety.

A. Performs activities of daily living. B. Explains answers to open-ended questions. C. Reports enjoyment from assigned activities. D. Shares a personal story with peers.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Avolition in schizophrenia is lack of motivation for goal-directed tasks, linked to prefrontal dopamine deficits. Performing activities of daily living (e.g., hygiene) shows improved motivation, achieving the goal. This reflects enhanced frontal lobe function, addressing the negative symptom of avolition, critical for functional recovery in schizophrenia.

Choice B reason: Explaining answers to open-ended questions shows cognitive ability, not motivation. Avolition impairs initiative for tasks like self-care, not verbal skills. Schizophrenia’s negative symptoms reduce drive, and this behavior does not address the motivational deficit targeted, making it less relevant than performing daily activities.

Choice C reason: Reporting enjoyment suggests improved affect but not motivation. Avolition involves initiating tasks, not emotional response. Performing daily activities directly demonstrates overcoming avolition, a negative symptom of reduced drive, aligning with the goal of enhancing goal-directed behavior in schizophrenia, making this less indicative.

Choice D reason: Sharing a story indicates social engagement, impaired in schizophrenia but not specific to avolition, which affects motivation for routine tasks. Performing daily activities directly shows improved initiative, addressing the treatment goal’s focus on overcoming dopamine-related motivational deficits, making social sharing less relevant.

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A client with a history of schizophrenia, and drug and alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital for hepatitis. The nurse should contact the healthcare provider before implementing which prescription?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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