A client with a history of rheumatic fever is diagnosed with mitral valve stenosis. The client has shortness of breath with exertion and fatigue. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Elevated blood pressure.
Rapid, irregular heart rate.
Swollen feet and ankles.
Blood-tinged sputum.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a concern but not as immediately threatening as some other symptoms associated with mitral valve stenosis.
Choice B reason: A rapid, irregular heart rate could indicate atrial fibrillation, which is common in mitral valve stenosis, but it is not as urgent as blood-tinged sputum.
Choice C reason: Swollen feet and ankles suggest fluid retention, which is a concern in mitral valve stenosis but not as immediate as hemoptysis.
Choice D reason: Blood-tinged sputum indicates hemoptysis, which can be a sign of pulmonary edema or other serious complications requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is the most urgent and could signify a potentially life-threatening condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Removing dentures or other oral appliances may be necessary for some medical procedures, but it is not the most important intervention for a client with OSA who has just received an opioid patch.
Choice B reason: Lifting and locking the side rails in place is a standard safety measure, but it does not directly address the respiratory concerns associated with OSA and opioid use.
Choice C reason: Applying the client's positive airway pressure device is the most important intervention. Opioids can depress respiration, and for a client with OSA, ensuring the airway is patent and supported by a positive airway pressure device is crucial to prevent respiratory complications.
Choice D reason: Elevating the head of the bed can aid in respiration, but it is not as immediately critical as ensuring the use of a positive airway pressure device for a client with OSA who is receiving opioids.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Right lower abdominal pain is not typically associated with Wernicke's syndrome and would likely indicate a different issue.
Choice B reason: Peripheral neuropathy can be a symptom of Wernicke's syndrome, but it is not as central to the condition as confusion, which is a hallmark sign.
Choice C reason: Confusion is a primary symptom of Wernicke's syndrome and should be used in planning the client's care, as it indicates acute encephalopathy and the need for immediate treatment with thiamine.
Choice D reason: Depression may be present in clients with Wernicke's syndrome, but it is not a primary assessment finding used to plan care for the acute stage of the condition.
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