The nurse is assessing an older adult client who is having difficulty remembering events from earlier in the day and concentrating on the questions being asked. A family member shares that the client's home was recently sold and the client has just moved in with them. Which nursing response best promotes effective communication with the family?
Delirium is often a sign of underlying mental illness, and institutionalization is often necessary.
If the dementia is a result of Alzheimer's disease, it is often reversible even in the late stages.
The client's delirium may be due to depression and is possibly reversible.
The client is exhibiting symptoms of dementia, and because of age, it may be permanent.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Suggesting that delirium is often a sign of underlying mental illness and that institutionalization is necessary can be distressing and may not be accurate without further assessment.
Choice B reason: Stating that dementia due to Alzheimer's disease is often reversible even in the late stages is incorrect; Alzheimer's disease is a progressive condition with no current cure.
Choice C reason: Recognizing the possibility of delirium due to depression, which can be reversible, is a hopeful and constructive approach that encourages further evaluation and treatment options.
Choice D reason: Suggesting that symptoms of dementia are permanent because of age can be disheartening and does not consider the potential for reversible causes of cognitive impairment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
Step 1: We need to find out how many mL contain 10 mg of loratadine. Since 5 mg of loratadine is in 5 mL, we can set up a proportion to find out how many mL contain 10 mg.
So, 5 mg is to 5 mL as 10 mg is to X mL.
This gives us the equation: (5 mg ÷ 5 mL) = (10 mg ÷ X mL)
Step 2: Solving for X gives us X = (10 mg × 5 mL) ÷ 5 mg
Step 3: Simplifying gives us X = 10 mL
So, the client needs to take 10 mL of the loratadine suspension to get a dose of 10 mg.
Now, we need to convert this volume in mL to teaspoons, using the conversion factor you provided (1 teaspoon = 5 mL).
Step 4: We set up the conversion as follows: 10 mL × (1 tsp ÷ 5 mL)
Step 5: Simplifying gives us 2 tsp
So, the nurse should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the loratadine suspension.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring the WBC count can help determine if the antibiotic is effectively treating an infection, as a decreasing count may indicate recovery.
Choice B reason: The RBC count is not typically affected by respiratory infections and is not a direct indicator of antibiotic effectiveness.
Choice C reason: Serum potassium levels are not directly related to the effectiveness of antibiotics for respiratory infections.
Choice D reason: BUN levels are more indicative of kidney function and are not used to evaluate antibiotic effectiveness for respiratory infections.
Choice E reason: A sputum culture and sensitivity test can identify the causative bacteria and determine if the antibiotic is effective.
Choice F reason: Urinalysis is not directly related to respiratory infections but can be part of a broader assessment of health.
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