A client who is hypotensive is receiving dopamine, an adrenergic agonist, IV at the rate of 8 mcg/kg/min. Which intervention should the nurse implement while administering this medication?
Assess pupillary response to light hourly.
Initiate seizure precautions.
Monitor serum potassium frequently.
Measure urinary output every hour.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Assess pupillary response to light hourly: Dopamine administration may cause changes in pupillary response, but it is not the primary concern associated with its administration. Hourly pupillary assessment may not be necessary unless other signs of neurological changes are present.
B. Initiate seizure precautions: While dopamine administration may cause neurological effects, such as agitation or tremors, it is not typically associated with seizure activity. Seizure precautions are not indicated solely due to dopamine infusion.
C. Monitor serum potassium frequently: Dopamine administration can affect potassium levels, but monitoring serum potassium levels frequently may not be necessary unless the client has pre- existing potassium imbalances or is at risk for electrolyte disturbances.
D. Measure urinary output every hour: Dopamine is a vasopressor medication that can increase blood pressure and cardiac output, potentially leading to increased renal perfusion and urinary output. Monitoring urinary output hourly is essential to assess the client's response to dopamine therapy and ensure adequate renal function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Increasing oxygen to 6 liters/minute may not address the underlying cause of the client's wheezing and may not be the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B. Calling for an Ambu resuscitation bag may be necessary if the client's condition deteriorates further, but it is not the initial intervention for a client with asthma exacerbation.
C. Instructing the client to lie back in bed may not be effective and may exacerbate respiratory distress.
D. Administering a nebulizer treatment with a bronchodilator (e.g., albuterol) is the most appropriate intervention for a client with asthma exacerbation experiencing wheezing and respiratory distress. Nebulizer treatments deliver medication directly to the airways, helping to relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. While managing pain is important, the client did not report significant pain, making it a lower priority in this scenario.
B. Quitting smoking is crucial for the client's respiratory health, especially given the history of smoking and current respiratory symptoms.
C. There is no indication that the client is at risk of skin breakdown; thus, it is not a priority in the immediate discharge plan.
D. Maintaining an oxygen saturation of 96% without supplemental oxygen is a direct indicator of improved respiratory function and a key goal for discharge.
E. Being afebrile for 24 hours would indicate that the infection is under control, which is a primary concern for discharge after presenting with flu-like symptoms.
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