A male client with a brain tumor is scheduled for a biopsy in the morning. During the admission procedure, the client has a tonic-clonic seizure that lasts 50 seconds. Following the seizure, the client is lethargic and confused and his wife tells the nurse that her husband has never had a seizure before and has always been alert and communicative. Which action should the nurse take?
Notify the emergency response team of the client's seizure.
Keep orienting the client to time and place until he is less confused.
Explain the postictal state that usually follows seizures.
Ask the wife to wait outside the room until the nurse can talk with her.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: Notifying the emergency response team of the client's seizure is not a necessary action for the nurse, as the seizure has already stopped and there is no immediate threat to the client's life. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Keeping orienting the client to time and place until he is less confused is an appropriate action for the nurse, as this can help restore the client's cognitive function and reduce his anxiety after a seizure. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice C: Explaining the postictal state that usually follows seizures is not a priority action for the nurse, as this can be done later when the client is more alert and receptive. This is another distractor choice.
Choice D: Asking the wife to wait outside the room until the nurse can talk with her is not a considerate action for the nurse, as this can increase her stress and worry about her husband's condition. This is a contraindicated choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa refusing to eat the evening snack is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice B: An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by other clients requires immediate attention. This situation can escalate quickly and may lead to physical harm or emotional distress for the client.
Choice C: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression refusing to participate in group is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice D: A 17-year-old client diagnosed with bipolar disorder pacing around the lobby might be experiencing agitation or restlessness, but unless they’re showing signs of immediate distress or posing a risk to themselves or others, it’s not the most urgent situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Providing bedside equipment for transmission and protective precautions is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a standard precaution that should be already in place for all clients in the critical care unit. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Evaluating daily serum electrolytes and hydration status is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a routine assessment that can be done later after addressing the immediate problem of infection. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: Culturing sputum, urine, burn wound, and all intravenous access sites is the first action that the nurse should implement, as this can help identify the source and type of infection, which can guide the appropriate antibiotic therapy and prevent further complications. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: Implementing central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) protocols is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a preventive measure that may not be applicable for this client who already has SIRS. This is another distractor choice.
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