When assessing a multigravida on the first postpartum day, the nurse finds a moderate amount of lochia rubra, with the uterus firm and three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. What action should the nurse implement first?
Check for a distended bladder.
Review the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage.
Massage the uterus to decrease atony.
Increase intravenous infusion.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice B reason: Reviewing the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should first identify and correct the cause of bleeding, such as bladder distension or uterine atony, before checking for blood loss and anemia.
Choice C reason: Massaging the uterus to decrease atony is not indicated in this case, because the uterus is already firm. Massaging a firm uterus can cause overstimulation and pain.
Choice D reason: Increasing intravenous infusion is not the first action, because it may worsen bleeding by increasing blood pressure and diluting clotting factors. The nurse should first assess and manage bleeding before administering fluids or blood products as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Obtaining postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty is a nursing action that the nurse can assign to the PN, as this is a basic skill that does not require complex judgment or intervention by the registered nurse. Therefore, this is a correct choice.
Choice B: Starting the second blood transfusion for a client twelve hours following a below knee amputation is not a nursing action that the nurse should assign to the PN, as this is an advanced skill that requires close monitoring and evaluation by the registered nurse. This is an incorrect choice.
Choice C: Initiating patient controlled analgesia (PCA. pumps for two clients immediately postoperatively is not a nursing action that the nurse should assign to the PN, as this involves administering controlled substances and assessing pain levels, which are beyond the scope of practice of the PN. This is another incorrect choice.
Choice D: Performing daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is a nursing action that the nurse can assign to the PN, as this is a routine task that can be done under the supervision and direction of the registered nurse. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice E: Administering a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is a nursing action that the nurse can assign to the PN, as this is an established protocol that can be followed by the PN with appropriate documentation and reporting. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa refusing to eat the evening snack is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice B: An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by other clients requires immediate attention. This situation can escalate quickly and may lead to physical harm or emotional distress for the client.
Choice C: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression refusing to participate in group is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice D: A 17-year-old client diagnosed with bipolar disorder pacing around the lobby might be experiencing agitation or restlessness, but unless they’re showing signs of immediate distress or posing a risk to themselves or others, it’s not the most urgent situation.
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