A client taking phenytoin suddenly develops hives. The nurse understands which of the following explains this occurrence.
A paradoxical reaction related to the body's attempt to maintain homeostasis, and it will resolve over time.
An allergic response and the medication should be stopped.
A random idiosyncratic reaction that will not disrupt the treatment plan.
A hypersensitive (excessive) response and the dose should be reduced.
The Correct Answer is B
The sudden development of hives in a client taking phenytoin is most likely an allergic response to the medication. In this case, the medication should be stopped and the healthcare provider should be notified.
Option A is incorrect because a paradoxical reaction is not related to the development of hives.
Option C is incorrect because an idiosyncratic reaction is unpredictable and can disrupt the treatment plan.
Option D is incorrect because a hypersensitive response would require more than just reducing the dose; the medication should be stopped.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that can be used as an antidote for lorazepam overdose ¹. It works by reversing the effects of benzodiazepines such as lorazepam ¹.
Option A is not correct because naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is not used to treat benzodiazepine overdose.
Option B is not correct because acetylcysteine is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and is not used to treat benzodiazepine overdose.
Option C is not correct because physostigmine is used to treat anticholinergic toxicity and is not used to treat benzodiazepine overdose.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client's symptoms of high fever, unstable blood pressure, increased confusion, and rigidity are consistent with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) ⁴. NMS is a rare but life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication ⁴. In this case, the client was taking olanzapine and was recently prescribed chlorpromazine, both of which are antipsychotic medications that can cause NMS ⁴.
Option A is incorrect because accelerated dementia would not cause the sudden onset of these symptoms.
Option B is incorrect because an infection would not explain the sudden onset of these symptoms after starting a new medication.
Option C is incorrect because aspiration would not cause rigidity or unstable blood pressure.
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