A client presents at the emergency department reporting a raspy voice, cold intolerance, and fatigue. Laboratory tests indicate an elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and low T3 and T4 levels. After the client is admitted to the telemetry unit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Offer additional blankets and a warm drink.
Note the client's most recent hemoglobin level.
Administer prescribed dose of levothyroxine.
Assess for presence of non-pitting edema.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect- While providing comfort measures like blankets and warm drinks can help the client feel more comfortable, they do not address the underlying thyroid hormone imbalance.
B) Incorrect- Hemoglobin level is not directly related to the client's symptoms or the thyroid hormone imbalance. Monitoring hemoglobin is important in assessing anemia but is not the priority in this case.
C) Correct- The client's symptoms (raspy voice, cold intolerance, fatigue) along with an elevated TSH and low T3 and T4 levels suggest hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism. Administering the prescribed dose of levothyroxine is crucial to address the thyroid hormone imbalance and alleviate the symptoms.
D. Incorrect- Non-pitting edema is not a common symptom of hypothyroidism. The client's symptoms and lab results are more indicative of hypothyroidism, and addressing the thyroid hormone imbalance is the priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Red blood cell count (RBC) is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
B) Correct- Core body temperature can be an indicator of systemic infection and needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for assessment and intervention.
C) Correct- Swollen lymph nodes in the groin suggest local and regional lymphatic involvement, indicating possible spread of infection. This finding needs further assessment and intervention.
D) Incorrect - The location of the initial intravenous (IV) site is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
E) Correct- An elevated white blood cell count (WBC) can indicate an inflammatory response to infection. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Jaw pain in a client taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis may be a sign of a rare but serious side effect called osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Therefore, the nurse should respond by: Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.
Jaw pain can be an indication of ONJ, a condition characterized by the death of jawbone tissue. It is important to notify the healthcare provider so that further evaluation and appropriate management can be initiated. The healthcare provider will determine the best course of action, which may include referral to a specialist for further assessment and treatment.
Determining how the client is administering the medication is not the immediate concern in this situation. While it is important to ensure that the client is following proper administration instructions for alendronate, addressing the jaw pain takes precedence.
Advising the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily may not be sufficient or appropriate for managing jaw pain related to alendronate use. The client needs a comprehensive assessment by the healthcare provider to determine the cause of the jaw pain and provide appropriate interventions.
Confirming that jaw pain is a common symptom of osteoporosis is not accurate. While osteoporosis can lead to bone pain, jaw pain specifically associated with bisphosphonate use is more likely to be related to ONJ and requires further evaluation and management
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