The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?
An adult who is in Buck's traction, and scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours.
An older client who is receiving packed red blood cells on the third day postoperatively for colon resection.
An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery.
An adult one day postoperative laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- Hip arthroplasty is a scheduled procedure, and there is no immediate indication of a critical condition that requires urgent attention.
B) Correct- Postoperative hemorrhage is a serious complication, and an older client receiving packed red blood cells may be experiencing active bleeding. This situation requires immediate assessment and intervention.
C) Incorrect- While continuous bladder irrigation requires monitoring, it is not as urgent as a potential postoperative hemorrhage.
D) Incorrect- Pain management is important, but it is not as urgent as assessing a client who may be experiencing active bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While the healthcare provider manages prescriptions, the nurse's immediate priority is providing education to prevent non-compliance and relapse. Referring the client elsewhere may delay critical reinforcement of treatment goals.
Choice B rationale: Although many side effects eventually diminish, telling the client they will "most likely dissipate" offers no immediate solution to their dissatisfaction and may diminish the client's current physical discomfort.
Choice C rationale: While true that antidepressants require tapering to avoid withdrawal, this does not address the client's misconception that the medication is no longer needed because they feel improved.
Choice D rationale: Patients often mistake the therapeutic effect for a permanent "cure." Explaining that they feel better specifically because the medication is working helps them understand the necessity of continued maintenance therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client's statement of feeling worthless most days and having no interest in activities she previously enjoyed indicates a potential risk for self-directed violence, including self-harm or suicidal ideation. These signs are significant and require immediate attention and intervention by the nurse.
Assessing and addressing the client's risk for self-directed violence is of utmost importance to ensure her safety and well-being. The nurse should initiate a thorough assessment of the client's mental health, including assessing for any suicidal ideation, intent, or plans. It is crucial to establish a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client to express her feelings and concerns.
The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare team to develop an appropriate care plan that may involve interventions such as close observation, involving a mental health professional, implementing safety measures, and providing emotional support.
While addressing other nursing problems, such as anxiety, imbalanced nutrition, and chronic low self-esteem, is important, the immediate concern is the client's risk for self-directed violence due to her feelings of hopelessness.
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