The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?
An adult who is in Buck's traction, and scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours.
An older client who is receiving packed red blood cells on the third day postoperatively for colon resection.
An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery.
An adult one day postoperative laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- Hip arthroplasty is a scheduled procedure, and there is no immediate indication of a critical condition that requires urgent attention.
B) Correct- Postoperative hemorrhage is a serious complication, and an older client receiving packed red blood cells may be experiencing active bleeding. This situation requires immediate assessment and intervention.
C) Incorrect- While continuous bladder irrigation requires monitoring, it is not as urgent as a potential postoperative hemorrhage.
D) Incorrect- Pain management is important, but it is not as urgent as assessing a client who may be experiencing active bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer ischoice A.
Choice A rationale:
Having the client vocalize the instructions provided ensures that they have understood the information correctly.This method allows the nurse to confirm comprehension and clarify any misunderstandings.
Choice B rationale:
Providing written instructions for eye drop administration is helpful but does not ensure that the client understands the instructions.It is a good supplementary measure but should not be the sole method of communication.
Choice C rationale:
Speaking clearly and facing the client for lip reading is important, especially for clients with hearing impairments.However, it does not guarantee that the client has understood the instructions.
Choice D rationale:
Ensuring that someone will stay with the client for 24 hours is a good safety measure but does not directly address the client’s understanding of the discharge instructions.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
B) Incorrect- Low-dose aspirin is often used for its antiplatelet effects to prevent cardiovascular events. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
C) Correct- Allopurinol is a medication used to treat gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. However, allopurinol can also increase the risk of forming calcium oxalate kidney stones, which is the type of kidney stone mentioned in the client's history. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone, and they are composed primarily of calcium and oxalate. In this case, the client has a history of gout and is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should bring the client's prescription for allopurinol to the healthcare provider's attention because
it has the potential to contribute to the formation of kidney stones, which could exacerbate the client's existing condition.
D) Incorrect- Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
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