A client who is one day postpartum tells the nurse that her baby cannot latch onto the breast.
The nurse determines that the client's nipples are inverted. Which action should the nurse implement?
Encourage the use of ice on the areola.
Teach about the use of a breast pump.
Offer supplemental formula feedings.
Recommend using a breast shield.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: Ice application induces vasoconstriction, which reduces swelling but does not evert inverted nipples. This action does not address the primary issue of nipple inversion preventing adequate latch.
Choice B rationale: Breast pump use creates negative pressure, drawing out the nipple. This eversion facilitates latching by providing a more prominent nipple for the infant's oral cavity to grasp effectively.
Choice C rationale: Supplemental formula feedings provide nutrition, but do not resolve the latching difficulty caused by inverted nipples. This can interfere with the establishment of the mother's milk supply.
Choice D rationale: Breast shields can aid latching, but they are most effective when used in conjunction with nipple eversion techniques. They do not directly address the underlying problem of inverted nipples.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Genetically inherited disorders of family members: While a family history of certain disorders might provide some insight, it is not typically the primary cause of elevated serum magnesium levels in an older adult.
B) Correct- Elevated serum magnesium levels are commonly associated with chronic laxative use, especially those containing magnesium-based compounds. Laxatives can lead to excessive magnesium intake, causing hypermagnesemia.
C. Incorrect- Smoking is not a common cause of elevated serum magnesium levels.
D. Incorrect- While dietary sources can contribute to magnesium intake, chronic laxative use is a more likely cause in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct- Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of HIV infection.
One of the potential side effects of zidovudine is hematological toxicity, including anemia (low red blood cell count) and neutropenia (low white blood cell count). The appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin could be indicative of petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by the leakage of blood into the skin. Petechiae can occur due to low platelet counts, a
component of the complete blood count (CBC). Monitoring the complete blood count is important for clients receiving zidovudine to identify any potential adverse effects on blood cell counts. Anemia and neutropenia can increase the risk of infection, bleeding, and other complications. Therefore, any changes in blood cell counts, including the presence of petechiae, should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
B) Incorrect- This is used to assess allergic reactions and is not specifically related to the appearance of petechiae.
C) Incorrect- A skin biopsy is typically performed to diagnose skin conditions or diseases and is not the primary assessment to evaluate the cause of petechiae.
D) Incorrect- Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess muscle and nerve function and is not relevant to the appearance of petechiae associated with zidovudine use.
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