The nurse discovers that an older client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

Genetically inherited disorders of family members.

Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation.

Length and frequency of the client's tobacco use.

Ingestion of shellfish or fish oil capsules daily.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Incorrect- Genetically inherited disorders of family members: While a family history of certain disorders might provide some insight, it is not typically the primary cause of elevated serum magnesium levels in an older adult.
B) Correct- Elevated serum magnesium levels are commonly associated with chronic laxative use, especially those containing magnesium-based compounds. Laxatives can lead to excessive magnesium intake, causing hypermagnesemia.
C. Incorrect- Smoking is not a common cause of elevated serum magnesium levels.

D. Incorrect- While dietary sources can contribute to magnesium intake, chronic laxative use is a more likely cause in this context.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A.Tingling on the tongue or lips is an early sign of an allergic reaction to the contrast dye used during an intravenous pyelogram. This type of reaction can quickly progress to more severe symptoms, such as difficulty breathing and anaphylaxis, so it is crucial to recognize and respond to it promptly.

B. Episodes of shivering: Shivering is not typically an early sign of an allergic reaction to contrast dye. It might indicate a reaction to temperature or anxiety but is not as immediately concerning as symptoms of an allergic reaction.

C. Salty taste in the mouth: A salty or metallic taste is a common and benign side effect of the contrast dye and is not indicative of an adverse reaction.

D. Difficulty breathing: Difficulty breathing is a severe and later sign of an allergic reaction. By the time this symptom appears, the reaction has progressed and immediate intervention is necessary.

A. The rash is due to distended oil glands that will resolve in a few weeks. B. This rash is characteristic of a medication reaction. C. The healthcare provider is being notified about the rash. D. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The rash described, pink papular rash with vesicles, is consistent with erythema toxicum neonatorum, which is a common skin condition that affects up to 50% of newborns. It typically appears within the first few days of life and resolves without treatment within 5-7 days. The rash is benign and does not require any specific treatment or intervention.

The rash is not due to distended oil glands or a medication reaction, and there is no indication in the scenario that the healthcare provider needs to be notified about the rash. Erythema toxicum neonatorum is a self-limited condition that resolves on its own, so reassurance and education for the parents are appropriate interventions.

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The nurse discovers that an older client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An adult client is admitted for severe pain in his side and back and is sent for an intravenous pyelogram. Which report from the client is the earliest indication to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to this procedure?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a "flea bite" type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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