A client newly diagnosed with HIV asks, "Why did my sore throat and rash go away? Does this mean I'm better? Which is the best response to give to the client?

“After the initial infection. you may become asymptomatic for a long time until your CD4+ Tell count nears 200.”

“Your Symptoms will come back once your CD4• Tell count reaches around 500."

“You won't have any more signs and symptoms until your CD4• cell count IS undetectable."

“This means you cannot transmit the disease during this time."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. After initial HIV infection, clients typically enter a latent phase where symptoms subside, but the virus continues to replicate. This phase can last for years before progressing to AIDS when the CD4+ T-cell count drops below 200.

B. Symptoms generally do not correlate with a CD4+ count of 500; mild immunosuppression may begin at this level, but the client remains asymptomatic.

C. The virus is still active and causing immune system damage, even when symptoms are absent.

D. HIV transmission can still occur during the asymptomatic phase, especially if viral load is detectable.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The client’s SpO2 is already at 97%, so increasing oxygen is unnecessary. Oxygen is only required if hypoxia is present.

B. Pain management is the priority in vaso-occlusive crisis. Severe pain leads to stress, increasing oxygen demand and worsening sickling. IV opioids (e.g., morphine) are the standard treatment.

C. The BP is elevated but not critically high, and pain-related stress may be contributing. Treating pain first is the priority.

D. IV fluids help with hydration and reducing sickling, but pain management should be addressed first to provide immediate relief.

A. Advise the client that they are currently at high risk for transmitting the disease. B. Encourage adequate nutrition. exercise, sleep. and standard infection prevention practices. C. Encourage antibiotic prophylaxis to keep viral load from elevating, D. Inform the client that they have been cured of their condition and will no longer require treatment.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. An "undetectable" viral load means the risk of HIV transmission is significantly reduced ("Undetectable = Untransmittable" or U=U), though precautions should still be followed.

B. Clients with a low CD4+ count (<200 cells/µL) are at increased risk for opportunistic infections. Encouraging a healthy lifestyle and infection prevention helps maintain immune function.

C. Antibiotic prophylaxis is considered for clients with CD4+ counts <200 cells/µL, but it does not prevent viral load elevation.

D. There is no cure for HIV; lifelong ART is required to maintain viral suppression.

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A client newly diagnosed with HIV asks, "Why did my sore throat and rash go away? Does this mean I'm better? Which is the best response to give to the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Eight years after beginning antiretroviral therapy (ART), a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection has a CD4+ cell count of 81 cell/L and an "undetectable" viral load. Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with anemia related to gastrointestinal (61) bleeding. Which prescription would the nurse expect at discharge?

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