A client is suspected of having a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which assessment would the nurse identify as the priority?

Hemorrhage

Edema

Infection

Jaundice

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Hemorrhage is the most life-threatening complication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, as it can lead to hypovolemic shock and death. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, blood loss, and level of consciousness, and administer fluids and blood products as ordered.

Choice B reason: Edema is not a common sign of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, and it is not a priority over hemorrhage. Edema may be caused by other conditions, such as heart failure, kidney disease, or venous insufficiency.

Choice C reason: Infection is a possible complication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, but it is not as urgent as hemorrhage. Infection may manifest as fever, chills, malaise, or foul-smelling vaginal discharge. The nurse should administer antibiotics as ordered and monitor the client's temperature and white blood cell count.

Choice D reason: Jaundice is not a typical symptom of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, and it is not a priority over hemorrhage. Jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction or hemolytic anemia, which are unrelated to ectopic pregnancy. The nurse should assess the client's skin and sclera color, and check the liver enzymes and bilirubin levels.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A: Striae gravidarum are stretch marks that appear on the abdomen, breasts, or thighs during pregnancy. They are caused by the tearing of the connective tissue in the dermis due to rapid growth or weight gain.

Choice B: Linea nigra is a dark vertical line that runs from the umbilicus to the pubic area. It is caused by increased melanin production due to hormonal changes during pregnancy. This is the correct choice because it matches the description in the question.

Choice C: Vascular spiders are dilated blood vessels that appear on the skin as red or purple spider-like lesions. They are caused by increased estrogen levels and blood volume during pregnancy. They are usually found on the face, neck, chest, or arms.

Choice D: Melasma is a condition that causes brown or gray patches on the face, especially on the forehead, cheeks, nose, or upper lip. It is caused by increased melanin production due to sun exposure and hormonal changes during pregnancy. It is also known as chloasma or the mask of pregnancy.

A. clear liquid diet B. administration of diethylstilbestrol C. total parenteral nutrition D. nothing by mouth

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: A clear liquid diet is not appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum, which is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and weight loss. A clear liquid diet does not provide adequate calories, protein, vitamins, or minerals for the client and the fetus.

Choice B: Administration of diethylstilbestrol is not indicated for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Diethylstilbestrol is a synthetic estrogen that was used in the past to prevent miscarriage and premature birth, but it was found to cause serious adverse effects such as vaginal cancer, infertility, and birth defects in the offspring.

Choice C: Total parenteral nutrition is the correct choice because it provides a complete and balanced source of nutrients through a central venous catheter. It is used for clients who cannot tolerate oral or enteral feeding due to severe gastrointestinal disorders such as hyperemesis gravidarum. It helps to prevent malnutrition, dehydration, and ketosis in the client and the fetus.

Choice D: Nothing by mouth is not a suitable option for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. It can worsen the condition by causing starvation, acidosis, and ketosis. It can also increase the risk of aspiration pneumonia if the client vomits.

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A client is suspected of having a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which assessment would the nurse identify as the priority?

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