A client is receiving heparin sodium 5000 units IV and oral warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO for thrombophlebitis in the left leg. The nurse educated the client that heparin and warfarin are both used because:
the heparin provides anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective.
this combination facilitates the dissolving of the clot.
smaller doses of both drugs can be used with this method of administration.
this combination provides immediate maximum protection against clot formation.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Heparin acts quickly to provide immediate anticoagulation, while warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels. Heparin ensures that the client is adequately anticoagulated during the initial phase while waiting for warfarin to take effect.
B. Neither heparin nor warfarin directly dissolves clots. They are both anticoagulants that prevent further clot formation and allow the body's natural processes (fibrinolysis) to break down the existing clot over time. The combination does not specifically facilitate the dissolution of clots.
C. This statement is misleading. The use of both medications is not primarily about reducing the doses. Instead, each medication has its own dosing based on the patient’s needs, and the combination is used for timing and efficacy rather than dose reduction.
D. While heparin does provide immediate anticoagulation, saying it provides "maximum protection" could be misleading. It does ensure effective anticoagulation in the short term, but the maximum effect is related to individual response and therapeutic levels, which vary. Additionally, once warfarin reaches therapeutic levels, it becomes the primary agent for long-term anticoagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["12.5"]
Explanation
1 kilogram equals 2.2 pounds.
110 lbs, which is equivalent to 50 kg (110 lbs / 2.2).
The prescribed dose is 2 mg/kg/day, so the total daily dose is 100 mg (2 mg/kg * 50 kg). This total daily dose is divided into four doses, which means each dose is 25 mg (100 mg / 4).
The medication is supplied as 10 mg/5 mL, so for a 25 mg dose, the nurse will administer 12.5 mL (25 mg * (5 mL / 10 mg)). Therefore, the nurse will administer 12.5 mL per dose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While skipping meals can affect blood glucose levels, it is not a direct primary cause of DKA. In some cases, if a person with Type 1 diabetes skips a meal and does not adjust their insulin accordingly, it could lead to hyperglycemia. However, the absence of insulin is the critical factor in DKA.
B. Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as vomiting or diarrhea, can contribute to DKA by leading to dehydration and altering insulin absorption. However, they are not primary causes. The main concern is that they may cause the individual to skip insulin or not manage their diabetes effectively.
C. DKA is primarily caused by a lack of insulin, which leads to the body breaking down fat for energy instead of glucose. This process produces ketones, which can accumulate and lead to acidosis. For individuals with Type 1 diabetes, consistently taking insulin is crucial to prevent DKA.
D. An insulin overdose can lead to hypoglycemia, not DKA. When too much insulin is taken, it can cause blood glucose levels to drop too low, which is the opposite of what occurs in DKA.
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