A client on glipizide, a sulfonylurea, reports to the nurse feeling anxious, sweaty & has a headache. The nurse's initial action is to:

take vital signs.

administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.

obtain a blood glucose reading.

notify the physician.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   While taking vital signs can provide useful information about the client's overall condition, it does not address the immediate concern of potential hypoglycemia. The priority is to assess blood glucose levels directly.
B.   Glucagon can be administered in cases of severe hypoglycemia where the patient is unable to ingest glucose orally. However, before administering glucagon, the nurse should first check the blood glucose level to confirm hypoglycemia.
C.   Checking the blood glucose level will provide immediate information about whether the client is experiencing hypoglycemia. If the blood glucose is low, appropriate treatment (such as administering glucose or a fast-acting carbohydrate) can be initiated. If it’s within normal limits, other causes for the symptoms can be explored.
D.   While it may be necessary to notify the physician depending on the outcome of the blood glucose reading or if the client’s condition worsens, it is not the first action. Immediate assessment of the blood glucose level is essential to determine the correct course of action.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While staying hydrated is essential, especially during illness, limiting intake to non-caloric liquids could lead to inadequate caloric intake and worsen the client’s condition. Instead, the client should maintain a balanced intake of fluids and carbohydrates as tolerated.
B. This is a reasonable approach. Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly allows the client to assess how their body is responding to the illness and any adjustments in insulin. If the levels continue to rise, it is important for the client to seek medical attention to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
C. While it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely decreasing carbohydrate intake can lead to inadequate caloric consumption, which is especially risky during an illness. The body needs energy, and people with diabetes must balance carbohydrate intake with insulin administration to avoid complications.
D. Holding insulin can lead to dangerously high blood glucose levels. Clients with Type 1 diabetes require insulin regardless of illness, and it’s crucial to adjust the insulin regimen based on current blood glucose levels and carbohydrate intake.

A. omitted meals. B. a GI disturbance. C. not taking insulin regularly. D. an insulin overdosage.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While skipping meals can affect blood glucose levels, it is not a direct primary cause of DKA. In some cases, if a person with Type 1 diabetes skips a meal and does not adjust their insulin accordingly, it could lead to hyperglycemia. However, the absence of insulin is the critical factor in DKA.
B. Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as vomiting or diarrhea, can contribute to DKA by leading to dehydration and altering insulin absorption. However, they are not primary causes. The main concern is that they may cause the individual to skip insulin or not manage their diabetes effectively.
C. DKA is primarily caused by a lack of insulin, which leads to the body breaking down fat for energy instead of glucose. This process produces ketones, which can accumulate and lead to acidosis. For individuals with Type 1 diabetes, consistently taking insulin is crucial to prevent DKA.
D. An insulin overdose can lead to hypoglycemia, not DKA. When too much insulin is taken, it can cause blood glucose levels to drop too low, which is the opposite of what occurs in DKA.

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A client on glipizide, a sulfonylurea, reports to the nurse feeling anxious, sweaty & has a headache. The nurse's initial action is to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client diagnosed with Type I diabetes calls the clinic with a blood glucose level of 285 mg/dL and symptoms of a sore throat, cough, and fever. The clinic triage nurse advises the client to:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is teaching an adult client with Type 1 diabetes that a primary cause of the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse explains to a client that an oral antihypoglycemic agents are not effective in Type I diabetes because people with Type I diabetes:

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What factors in the history of a client with schizoaffective disorders puts the client at higher risk for type 2 diabetes? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Ten minutes after initiating an intravenous antibiotic, the client complains of shortness of breath, itching, and difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's initial action?

The client, on an intensified insulin regimen, consistently has a fasting blood glucose between 70 and 80 mg/dl, a post prandial blood glucose level below 200 mg/dl, and a hemoglobin A1c level of 4.5%. What is the nurse's interpretation of these findings? The client is:

What clinical manifestation(s) should the nurse expect in a client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)