The client diagnosed with Type I diabetes calls the clinic with a blood glucose level of 285 mg/dL and symptoms of a sore throat, cough, and fever. The clinic triage nurse advises the client to:
limit intake to non-caloric containing liquids until the glucose is within normal limits.
monitor blood glucose levels every 4 hours and go to the clinic if it continues to rise.
decrease intake of carbohydrates until blood glucose level is less than 200 mg/dL
hold the morning prescribed dose of insulin.
The Correct Answer is B
A. While staying hydrated is essential, especially during illness, limiting intake to non-caloric liquids could lead to inadequate caloric intake and worsen the client’s condition. Instead, the client should maintain a balanced intake of fluids and carbohydrates as tolerated.
B. This is a reasonable approach. Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly allows the client to assess how their body is responding to the illness and any adjustments in insulin. If the levels continue to rise, it is important for the client to seek medical attention to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
C. While it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely decreasing carbohydrate intake can lead to inadequate caloric consumption, which is especially risky during an illness. The body needs energy, and people with diabetes must balance carbohydrate intake with insulin administration to avoid complications.
D. Holding insulin can lead to dangerously high blood glucose levels. Clients with Type 1 diabetes require insulin regardless of illness, and it’s crucial to adjust the insulin regimen based on current blood glucose levels and carbohydrate intake.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This is a symptom of urinary tract infection, not renal colic.
B. This indicates kidney damage, which may occur as a complication of untreated kidney stones, but it's not a typical symptom of renal colic itself.
C. This is not a symptom of renal colic.
D. This is a classic symptom of renal colic, which is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. The pain is often described as excruciating and can radiate to the groin or testicle.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While epinephrine is crucial in cases of anaphylaxis, it should not be the first action taken. The immediate priority is to stop the offending medication.
B. While assessing vital signs is important, it is not the first action. The primary concern is to halt the exposure to the potential allergen.
C. The first action in this situation should be to immediately stop the infusion of the antibiotic. This prevents further exposure to the allergen and is critical to managing the potential anaphylactic reaction.
D. While providing oxygen may be necessary later if the client is hypoxic, the immediate priority is to stop the infusion of the antibiotic first. Administering oxygen is important but comes after halting the offending agent.
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