A newly admitted client has been prescribed sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim. The nurse understands that this medication is contraindicated based on which lab result?
Serum fasting glucose 101 mg/dL
platelets 160,000 uL
Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL
The Correct Answer is C
A. A serum fasting glucose level of 101 mg/dL indicates a mild elevation but is not significantly high enough to contraindicate the use of TMP-SMX. It does not directly relate to the medication’s safety.
B. A platelet count of 160,000 µL is within normal limits (normal range is typically 150,000-450,000 µL). This result does not indicate any contraindication for using TMP-SMX.
C. A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function (normal range is typically 0.6-1.2 mg/dL). TMP-SMX can be contraindicated in patients with significant renal impairment due to the potential for drug accumulation and toxicity, particularly affecting renal function.
D. A hemoglobin level of 13.6 g/dL is within normal limits (normal range is approximately 13.5-17.5 g/dL for males and 12.0-15.5 g/dL for females). This result does not indicate a contraindication for using TMP- SMX.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The effectiveness of oral antihypoglycemic agents does not depend on dosage amounts that would make them cost-prohibitive. Instead, these medications work by stimulating insulin production or enhancing insulin sensitivity, which is not relevant for Type 1 diabetes.
B. While some individuals may have allergies to certain medications, this is not the reason oral antihypoglycemic agents are ineffective for those with Type 1 diabetes. The ineffectiveness is not related to allergy but rather to the underlying pathology of the disease.
C. While it is true that the risk of hypoglycemia exists with all glucose-lowering therapies, this is not the primary reason why oral antihypoglycemics are ineffective in Type 1 diabetes. The use of these agents may increase hypoglycemia risk in a broader context, but the fundamental issue is related to insulin deficiency.
D. In Type 1 diabetes, the pancreas produces little to no insulin due to autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells. Oral antihypoglycemic agents typically rely on the presence of some endogenous insulin to be effective.
Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
Explanation
Volume to administer (mL)=( Desired dose (mcg)/Available concentration (mcg/mL) 100 mcg is in 2 mL, so the concentration is:
100 mcg/2 Ml =50 mcg/mL
Volume to administer =25 mcg/ 50 mcg/mL=0.5mL
So, the nurse will administer 0.5 mL of fentanyl for the correct dose.
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