A physician orders Lithium 5 grams/day is three divided doses PO for a client with bipolar disorder. The medication is supplied 400 mg/5 mL. How much will the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["6.2"]
Total daily dose in mg:
1.5 grams/day = 1500 mg/day Dose per administration in mg:
1500 mg/day ÷ 3 doses/day = 500 mg/dose Volume to be administered per dose in mL:
(500 mg/dose) / (400 mg/5 mL) = 6.25 mL/dose
Rounding to the nearest tenth, the nurse will administer 6.2 mL per dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Clients on warfarin should generally avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin and ibuprofen, as these can increase the risk of bleeding. Instead, acetaminophen is often recommended for pain relief, but it should be used cautiously and under a healthcare provider’s guidance.
B. While vitamin K found in green, leafy vegetables can affect warfarin levels, clients do not need to eliminate these foods entirely. Instead, they should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods to help manage their INR levels. Sudden changes in diet can lead to fluctuations in anticoagulation control.
C. It is important for clients taking warfarin to wear a medical alert bracelet. This alerts healthcare providers in case of an emergency, as the client may require special care due to their anticoagulant therapy.
D. Using an electric razor is a safer option for clients on warfarin as it reduces the risk of cuts and bleeding compared to using a traditional razor. This is an important safety measure for those on anticoagulation therapy.
E. Monitoring prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) is essential for clients on warfarin to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. Regular testing helps to manage the dosage effectively and minimize the risk of bleeding or thrombosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This time falls shortly after the onset of NPH insulin. While hypoglycemia could start to occur around this time, it is less likely to be at its peak.
B. This time is past the peak range of NPH insulin. The likelihood of hypoglycemia is lower as the insulin effect would be tapering off.
C. This time is well past the usual duration of NPH insulin. By this point, the risk of hypoglycemia would be significantly decreased.
D. This time falls within the peak action of NPH insulin (approximately 4-12 hours post-administration). This is when hypoglycemia is most likely to occur due to the greatest effect of the insulin.
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