A client is on a blood thinner medication and requires weekly INR values. The nurse expects to see an INR of 2-2.5 times the normal range so she would anticipate what value:
below 1.0
1.0-2.0
above 3.0
2.0-3.0
The Correct Answer is D
A. Below 1.0: Too low, indicating inadequate anticoagulation, increasing the risk of clot formation.
B. 1.0-2.0: Subtherapeutic, meaning the medication is not effectively preventing clot formation.
C. Above 3.0: Too high, increasing the risk of bleeding complications
D. 2.0-3.0: The normal INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a client not on anticoagulants is 0.8-1.2. For clients on warfarin or other blood thinners, the target therapeutic range is typically 2.0-3.0, which reduces the risk of blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Some conditions, such as mechanical heart valves, may require a higher target range (2.5-3.5).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: Causes fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental status-not dry mouth or blurry vision.
B. Teratogenicity: Refers to birth defects from medications taken during pregnancy.
C. Parkinson-like syndrome: Involves tremors, muscle rigidity, and bradykinesia-not dry mouth or blurry vision.
D. Anticholinergic effects: Symptoms of dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention are classic signs of anticholinergic side effects caused by medications like antihistamines, tricyclic antidepressants, and some antipsychotics.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. NG: Stands for nasogastric, referring to a tube inserted through the nose into the stomach.
B. T: Not a standard abbreviation for medication administration.
C. DNR: Stands for "Do Not Resuscitate," unrelated to medication timing.
D. AC: "AC" is the standard medical abbreviation for "before meals" (Latin: ante cibum).
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