A client is admitted with bipolar disorder, manic psychosis. The client is placed in seclusion after unsuccessful attempts by staff at deescalating the client during a sudden mood swing from laughter to jumping and screaming threats while waving a plastic dinner knife. The client is given haloperidol 5 mg IM STAT prior to seclusion. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement immediately after seclusion?
Secure the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings.
Provide one-on-one observation at all times.
Release the client as soon as composure is regained.
Observe for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale
A. While ensuring the room is secure and providing one-on-one observation are also important, the immediate concern after administering haloperidol is the potential for these side effects.
B. Continuous observation is crucial to monitor the client's behavior, mood, and safety while in seclusion. This allows the nurse to intervene promptly. However, monitoring should be specific
C. Seclusion is not intended as a punishment but as a therapeutic intervention to protect the client and others from harm during acute psychiatric episodes. The decision to release the client should be based on clinical assessment
D. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including dystonia (muscle spasms). Monitoring for EPS is essential after administering haloperidol to ensure early detection and treatment, which may involve administering anticholinergic medications if EPS occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale
A. Benzodiazepine antagonists, such as flumazenil, are used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of overdose or excessive sedation. However, in the context of using temazepam for insomnia, this is not a standard approach.
B. Benzodiazepines like temazepam should not be stopped abruptly, especially if they have been taken regularly. Abrupt cessation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including rebound insomnia, anxiety, agitation, and potentially seizures in severe cases.
C. This option addresses the symptom of feeling "hungover" or fatigued the next day after taking temazepam. It acknowledges that residual sedation or drowsiness can occur with temazepam use. The nurse can educate the client about the potential for these side effects and suggest allowing for adequate time for sleep to alleviate these symptoms.
D. Stopping temazepam abruptly is not recommended because it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potentially worsen insomnia. This option does not address the need for tapering off the medication or managing the symptoms effectively.
Correct Answer is "{\"xRanges\":[389.5,439.5],\"yRanges\":[222,272]}"
Explanation
Site- the nose
Rationale
Rhinorrhea refers specifically to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. This occurs when there is a leakage of CSF from the nose due to a fracture or injury to the skull base or surrounding structures, such as the cribriform plate.
CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds and cushions the brain and spinal cord. When there is a fracture or disruption in the skull base, CSF can leak out through the nasal passages. This condition is concerning because it can increase the risk of infection, such as meningitis, due to the direct communication between the central nervous system and the external environment through the nasal cavity.
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