A client is admitted with bipolar disorder, manic psychosis. The client is placed in seclusion after unsuccessful attempts by staff at deescalating the client during a sudden mood swing from laughter to jumping and screaming threats while waving a plastic dinner knife. The client is given haloperidol 5 mg IM STAT prior to seclusion. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement immediately after seclusion?

Secure the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings.

Provide one-on-one observation at all times.

Release the client as soon as composure is regained.

Observe for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale

A. While ensuring the room is secure and providing one-on-one observation are also important, the immediate concern after administering haloperidol is the potential for these side effects.

B. Continuous observation is crucial to monitor the client's behavior, mood, and safety while in seclusion. This allows the nurse to intervene promptly. However, monitoring should be specific

C. Seclusion is not intended as a punishment but as a therapeutic intervention to protect the client and others from harm during acute psychiatric episodes. The decision to release the client should be based on clinical assessment

D. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including dystonia (muscle spasms). Monitoring for EPS is essential after administering haloperidol to ensure early detection and treatment, which may involve administering anticholinergic medications if EPS occurs.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale

A. JVD is typically an indicator of increased central venous pressure and can be associated with heart failure or fluid overload. In this scenario, flat JVD suggests decreased venous return, which may exacerbate the client's hypotension. While important, it may not be the most immediate concern compared to other options.

B. Changes in consciousness, such as confusion, disorientation, or loss of consciousness, are critical signs that indicate poor cerebral perfusion. In this case, the rapid ventricular rate and possibly inadequate cardiac output may not be meeting cerebral perfusion needs, leading to altered mental status. This finding requires urgent attention to prevent further deterioration.

C. Nausea and vomiting can indicate inadequate perfusion to the gastrointestinal tract due to hypotension or impaired cardiac output. While important to assess for fluid and electrolyte balance, it is less urgent compared to potential changes in mental status or perfusion to vital organs.

D. A sudden onset headache can be indicative of various issues, including hypertension, cerebral ischemia, or intracranial hemorrhage. However, in the context of atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and hypotension, other neurological signs such as altered mental status or focal neurological deficits would typically be more concerning.

A. Measure ankle circumference. B. Obtain serum creatinine levels daily. C. Ensure client takes a diuretic every morning. D. Monitor daily sodium intake.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale

A. This intervention is important for assessing peripheral edema, which can indicate fluid overload. While relevant, it is not the highest priority in addressing acute weight gain and elevated blood pressure.

B. Daily monitoring of serum creatinine is important but is more relevant once diuretic therapy is initiated to assess renal function and electrolyte balance.

C. This option is crucial because diuretic therapy is aimed at correcting fluid imbalance in SIADH. However, the timing and dosage of diuretics should be adjusted based on clinical assessment and not solely on a fixed morning administration.

D. Monitoring sodium intake is a long-term strategy in managing SIADH to prevent hyponatremia. While important, it does not address the immediate concerns of fluid overload and elevated blood pressure.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has developed atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/minute observed via telemetry. The client's blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is being treated for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). On examination, the client has a weight gain of 4.4 lbs (2 kg) in 24 hours and an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which problem reported by a client taking lovastatin requires the most immediate follow-up by the nurse?

In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for an older adult client diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which expected outcome has the highest priority for this client?

After an unsuccessful resuscitation attempt, the nurse calls the family of the deceased. The family wish to see the body before it is taken to the funeral home. Which intervention(s) should the nurse take to prepare the body before the family enters the room? Select all that apply.

A client is admitted to the intensive care until (ICU) with a spinal cord injury following a motor vehicle collision. Which nurse should be contacted to coordinate the progression of the client's care?

When conducting diet teaching for a client who was diagnosed with hypertension, which food(s) should the nurse encourage the client to eat? Select all that apply.