A client receiving mechanical ventilation has a pH of 7.26, PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg, and a PaO2 of 92 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?Reference Range:
Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
pH [Adult/child: 7.35 to 7.45]
PaCO2 [Adult/child: 35 to 45 mm Hg)
HCO- [Adult/child: 21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L)] PaO2 [Adult/child: 80 to 100 mm Hg)
Increase rate of ventilation.
Decrease expiratory flow time.
Increase ventilator tidal volume.
Decrease expiratory pressure.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale
A. The client's pH is low (acidotic), and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory acidosis). Increasing the rate of ventilation (respiratory rate) can help to decrease PaCO2 by increasing alveolar ventilation, thereby helping to correct respiratory acidosis.
B. Expiratory flow time affects the time available for exhalation. While this may affect the overall mechanics of ventilation, it is not directly targeting the primary issue of elevated PaCO2 and acidosis.
C. Increasing tidal volume increases the volume of air delivered with each breath. This can improve ventilation efficiency but may not address the underlying problem of elevated PaCO2 unless it leads to increased minute ventilation.
D. Expiratory pressure is related to positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), which helps maintain alveolar recruitment and improve oxygenation. Decreasing expiratory pressure may not directly address the elevated PaCO2 and acidosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale
A. This client may require complex care related to liver disease and alcoholism, likely exceeding the scope of practice for a PN.
B. While this client requires specialized wound care and diabetes management, the tasks involved may be appropriate for a PN under RN supervision.
C. This client's care typically involves routine postoperative monitoring and interventions that are suitable for a PN under RN supervision.
D. This client requires specialized ostomy care and postoperative monitoring, which can generally be managed by a PN under RN supervision.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale
A. Benzodiazepine antagonists, such as flumazenil, are used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of overdose or excessive sedation. However, in the context of using temazepam for insomnia, this is not a standard approach.
B. Benzodiazepines like temazepam should not be stopped abruptly, especially if they have been taken regularly. Abrupt cessation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including rebound insomnia, anxiety, agitation, and potentially seizures in severe cases.
C. This option addresses the symptom of feeling "hungover" or fatigued the next day after taking temazepam. It acknowledges that residual sedation or drowsiness can occur with temazepam use. The nurse can educate the client about the potential for these side effects and suggest allowing for adequate time for sleep to alleviate these symptoms.
D. Stopping temazepam abruptly is not recommended because it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potentially worsen insomnia. This option does not address the need for tapering off the medication or managing the symptoms effectively.
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