A client in the PACU with a left below-the-knee amputation complains of pain in her left big toe. Which of the following would the nurse do first?

Show the patient that her leg is gone

Administer the prescribed pain medication

Explain and educate the patient that the pain is real

Tell the patient that it is not possible to feel pain in her toes

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Showing the patient that her leg is gone does not address the immediate concern of pain management.

Choice B reason: Administering the prescribed pain medication is the first step in managing phantom pain, which is a common experience for amputees.

Choice C reason: While it is important to validate the patient's experience of pain, the first action should be to address the pain medically.

Choice D reason: Telling the patient that it is not possible to feel pain in her toes is incorrect and dismissive of the phenomenon of phantom pain.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: The annual pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for preventing pneumococcal disease, which can be a complication of COPD, but it is not a primary prevention method for COPD itself.

Choice B reason: Maintaining ideal weight is important for overall health but is not directly related to the prevention of COPD.

Choice C reason: The annual inﬂuenza vaccine can help prevent ﬂu-related complications in individuals with COPD but is not a primary prevention method for COPD.

Choice D reason: Stopping or cutting back on smoking is the most eﬀective way to prevent COPD, as smoking is the leading cause of the disease.

A. Pre-Renal B. Super-secret double renal failure C. Post-Renal D. Intra-Renal

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood ﬂow or hydration aﬀecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine ﬂow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic eﬀects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.

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A client in the PACU with a left below-the-knee amputation complains of pain in her left big toe. Which of the following would the nurse do first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is giving a presentation at a community center about chronic bronchitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include as eﬀective for preventing this disorder?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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