A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation, which has not improved with albuterol nebulizer treatments. The client is obviously struggling to breathe. The nurse anticipates that intubation and mechanical ventilation will be needed based on which of the following assessment findings?

Tachycardia

Anxiety

Hypotension

Loud expiratory wheezing

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) can occur in response to hypoxia (low oxygen levels), stress, or as a side effect of medications like albuterol. While tachycardia is a concerning sign in the context of an asthma exacerbation, it alone does not directly indicate the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. It is often managed by addressing the underlying respiratory distress and improving oxygenation.
B.   Anxiety is common in patients struggling to breathe, as they may feel frightened or panicked due to their difficulty breathing. However, anxiety itself is not an indicator for intubation and mechanical ventilation. It is a symptom of respiratory distress but does not directly assess the severity of the physiological need for mechanical support.
C.   Hypotension (low blood pressure) in the context of an asthma exacerbation can be a sign of severe illness, possibly indicating shock or severe respiratory distress leading to reduced cardiac output. While hypotension is a serious concern, it is less directly related to the immediate need for intubation and mechanical ventilation compared to other indicators of respiratory failure.
D.   Loud expiratory wheezing indicates significant airway obstruction but does not necessarily reflect the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. Wheezing can be a sign of severe asthma but may not be sufficient on its own to necessitate intubation if the patient can still maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

A. Prednisone B. Etanercept C. Ibuprofen D. Hydroxychloroquine

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. While effective for reducing inflammation and pain, corticosteroids are generally not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis. They are more commonly used for inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
B. Etanercept is a biologic agent used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis by targeting tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) to reduce inflammation. It is not indicated for osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory degenerative joint disease rather than an autoimmune inflammatory disease.
C. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to manage pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis. NSAIDs like ibuprofen are often the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis because they help reduce pain and inflammation, improve function, and enhance the quality of life for patients. Ibuprofen is a suitable and preferred option for managing symptoms of osteoarthritis.
D. Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug that is also used to treat autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It works by modulating the immune system and reducing inflammation. However, it is not typically used for osteoarthritis, which is not an autoimmune condition.

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