A client has been on daily, high-dose prednisone therapy to treat an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next paycheck. He decides to skip his prednisone for a few days. What is likely to happen to this patient when he abruptly stops taking prednisone?
He will become hyperglycemic.
le will become hypotensive.
He will retain excess fluid.
He can safely pause prednisone for a few days.
The Correct Answer is B
A. The immediate concern with abrupt cessation is more related to adrenal insufficiency rather than hyperglycemia. However, chronic use of prednisone can contribute to glucose intolerance and diabetes, but this is not the primary issue with sudden discontinuation.
B. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency because the body has become reliant on the medication to suppress inflammation and regulate various bodily functions. The adrenal glands may not immediately resume normal cortisol production, which can lead to symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, including hypotension.
C. Fluid retention is a common side effect of prednisone use. However, stopping prednisone suddenly does not typically cause fluid retention; rather, it can lead to other issues like adrenal insufficiency. Fluid retention is more related to the medication's use rather than its abrupt discontinuation.
D. Abruptly stopping high-dose prednisone, especially after long-term use, can be dangerous. The body may not immediately resume normal cortisol production, leading to symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, and hypotension. It is crucial to taper off prednisone gradually under medical supervision to allow the adrenal glands time to recover and to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Laparoscopic splenectomy involves the surgical removal of the spleen. The spleen is an organ where platelets are often destroyed in ITP. Removing the spleen can reduce the destruction of platelets and potentially improve platelet counts. This procedure is considered when medical therapy fails to adequately control the condition and is often effective in increasing platelet counts for many patients with chronic ITP.
B. Transfusion of platelets is generally not effective in ITP because the underlying problem is that the platelets are being destroyed by the immune system. Platelet transfusions may provide a temporary increase in platelet count but do not address the underlying cause of platelet destruction.
C. ADAMTS-13 is a von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), not ITP. Replacement of ADAMTS-13 is relevant for treating TTP, a different condition that also involves thrombocytopenia but has a different pathophysiology.
D. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant. It is not used to treat ITP and does not affect platelet destruction or platelet count. This procedure is not relevant to the management of ITP.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly irregular rhythms with no distinct P-waves. Instead, it has a chaotic baseline with fibrillatory waves. The ventricular response can be irregular and variable. The description provided (regular P-waves in a sawtooth formation) does not match the typical appearance of atrial fibrillation, which lacks regular P-waves and has an irregular rhythm.
B. Atrial flutter is characterized by regular, sawtooth-shaped P-waves known as "F-waves" or "flutter waves." The classic pattern is referred to as "F-waves" with a "sawtooth" appearance, often seen in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF). The atrial rate is typically between 240 to 340 beats per minute, which fits the rate of 260 beats per minute in the description. The ventricular rate can be regular or irregular, depending on the degree of AV node conduction. A
C. Unstable angina is a clinical diagnosis of chest pain due to myocardial ischemia. It is not associated with specific ECG findings related to the P-wave morphology or rate. The ECG findings described do not correspond to unstable angina, which would typically present with ST-segment changes or other signs of myocardial ischemia rather than a specific P-wave pattern.
D. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are early beats originating from the atria that interrupt the normal rhythm. They usually present as a single early beat with a different morphology of the P-wave compared to the sinus P-waves, but do not result in a regular sawtooth pattern or a sustained rhythm at high rates like the one described.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
