A nurse is caring for a client with an acute heart failure exacerbation. Which of the following medications are commonly prescribed to manage heart failure? (Select all that apply.)
Atorvastatin
Furosemide
Methimazole
Apixaban
Correct Answer : B,E
A. Atorvastatin is a statin used primarily to manage hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol levels) and reduce cardiovascular risk. However, it is not specifically used to treat heart failure symptoms or manage acute exacerbations.
B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to manage heart failure. It helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis (increased urine production), which can help alleviate symptoms of heart failure such as edema and pulmonary congestion.
C. Methimazole is an antithyroid medication used to manage hyperthyroidism. It is not used to treat heart failure. Thyroid disorders can impact heart failure, but methimazole itself does not address the acute symptoms or underlying mechanisms of heart failure.
D. Apixaban is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) used to prevent blood clots in conditions like atrial fibrillation. However, it is not used specifically to manage acute heart failure symptoms.
E. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that can be used to manage heart failure, especially in patients with atrial fibrillation. It helps improve cardiac output and control heart rate. Digoxin can be useful in managing heart failure symptoms by enhancing the heart's contractility and controlling the heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Black, tarry stool is indicative of blood that has been digested in the upper GI tract. The dark color is due to the action of digestive enzymes on blood.
B. Clay-colored stool is typically associated with biliary obstruction, not upper GI bleeding.
C. Watery stool can be caused by various conditions, including infections, inflammatory bowel diseases, and medications. It is not a specific indicator of upper GI bleeding.
D. Bright red blood in the stool is more likely to be associated with lower GI bleeding, such as from hemorrhoids or anal fissures.
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Flow rate in gtt/min = (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.
The prescribed volume is 150 mL/hr. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, the time for one hour would be 60 minutes. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL.
(150 mL/hr * 20 gtt/mL) / 60 min/hr = 3000 gtt/hr / 60 min/hr = 50 gtt/min.
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min.
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