A client in an urgent care clinic is reports having heart palpitations, and occasional shortness of breath. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows regular P- waves in a sawtooth formation at a rate of 260 beats per minute, and a regular ventricular rate of 82 beats per minute. The nurse should understand that this ECG finding represents which of the following conditions?
Atrial fibrillation
Atrial flutter
Unstable angina
Premature atrial contractions
The Correct Answer is B
A. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly irregular rhythms with no distinct P-waves. Instead, it has a chaotic baseline with fibrillatory waves. The ventricular response can be irregular and variable. The description provided (regular P-waves in a sawtooth formation) does not match the typical appearance of atrial fibrillation, which lacks regular P-waves and has an irregular rhythm.
B. Atrial flutter is characterized by regular, sawtooth-shaped P-waves known as "F-waves" or "flutter waves." The classic pattern is referred to as "F-waves" with a "sawtooth" appearance, often seen in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF). The atrial rate is typically between 240 to 340 beats per minute, which fits the rate of 260 beats per minute in the description. The ventricular rate can be regular or irregular, depending on the degree of AV node conduction. A
C. Unstable angina is a clinical diagnosis of chest pain due to myocardial ischemia. It is not associated with specific ECG findings related to the P-wave morphology or rate. The ECG findings described do not correspond to unstable angina, which would typically present with ST-segment changes or other signs of myocardial ischemia rather than a specific P-wave pattern.
D. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are early beats originating from the atria that interrupt the normal rhythm. They usually present as a single early beat with a different morphology of the P-wave compared to the sinus P-waves, but do not result in a regular sawtooth pattern or a sustained rhythm at high rates like the one described.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While vitamin A can interact with some medications, it does not have a significant effect on verteporfin.
B. Verteporfin does not typically affect blood sugar levels.
C. Verteporfin is usually administered intravenously, so it is not taken orally.
D. Verteporfin is a photosensitizing agent used in photodynamic therapy for age-related macular degeneration. After treatment with verteporfin, the client should avoid sunlight and other intense light for several days to prevent a severe sunburn-like reaction. This is because verteporfin makes the skin and eyes more sensitive to light.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This would indicate adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing syndrome.
B. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol would indicate Cushing syndrome caused by pituitary adenoma, not adrenal gland hyperplasia.
C. Low adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol is consistent with Cushing syndrome caused by adrenal gland hyperplasia. In this condition, the adrenal glands produce excess cortisol independently of ACTH stimulation.
D. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and low cortisol would indicate adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing syndrome.
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