A client comes to the primary healthcare clinic and reports that her current sexual partner was recently diagnosed with gonorrhea.
Which treatment would you expect the client and her partner to receive?
A single dose of Ceftriaxone, injected intramuscular (IM).
A 7-day oral (PO) dosing of Doxycycline.
A single dose of Penicillin, injected intramuscular (IM).
No treatment is necessary; gonorrhea typically goes away on its own.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea is typically a single 500 mg intramuscular (IM) injection of Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin. This regimen is highly effective because Ceftriaxone achieves high, sustained serum and tissue levels and addresses the increasing rates of antimicrobial resistance seen in Neisseria gonorrhoeae, providing a reliable, single-dose cure to both the client and their partner.
Choice B rationale
Doxycycline is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infection, which frequently co-occurs with gonorrhea. While it may be administered alongside Ceftriaxone for dual coverage if chlamydia hasn't been ruled out, it is not the monotherapy for gonorrhea, which requires the higher efficacy of a cephalosporin like Ceftriaxone due to resistance patterns.
Choice C rationale
Penicillin is no longer the standard treatment for gonorrhea because Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed widespread resistance to penicillins and many other older antibiotics through plasmid-mediated β-lactamase production and chromosomal mutations. Using a single dose of Penicillin would likely result in treatment failure and the progression of the infection, thus necessitating the use of the more potent Ceftriaxone.
Choice D rationale
Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and is a serious sexually transmitted infection (STI) that requires prompt antibiotic treatment. It does not typically resolve on its own. Untreated infection can lead to severe complications, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymitis in men, and potentially disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI), highlighting the necessity of effective treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While vitamin K, found in green leafy vegetables, is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X), it is relevant to individuals on warfarin therapy. For general deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prevention, the focus is on promoting venous return and preventing stasis, not dietary modification regarding vitamin K, unless a client is on specific anticoagulants.
Choice B rationale
Massaging lower extremities in a client at risk for DVT is contraindicated because it could theoretically dislodge a pre-existing, non-symptomatic clot. Dislodgement can convert the deep vein thrombus into a pulmonary embolus (PE), a life-threatening complication where the clot travels to the pulmonary vasculature, impeding gas exchange.
Choice C rationale
Sequential compression devices (SCDs) use intermittent, pneumatic pressure to cyclically compress the leg, simulating the action of the skeletal muscle pump. This external compression promotes venous blood flow from the superficial to the deep veins, which effectively reduces venous stasis and the associated risk of thrombus formation, a primary mechanism in DVT pathogenesis.
Choice D rationale
Limiting movement of the lower extremities increases venous stasis, which is a key component of Virchow's triad (venous stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability) and a major risk factor for DVT formation. Promoting activity, such as frequent position changes, ambulation, or ankle pumps, is the core physical intervention for preventing DVT.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Chlamydia trachomatis infection in males can cause urethritis, epididymitis, and proctitis, leading to pain and inflammation; however, it is not a common or direct cause of meningitis. Meningitis is typically caused by bacterial pathogens like Neisseria meningitidis or Streptococcus pneumoniae or viral agents that infect the meninges, the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.
Choice B rationale
Persistent infection with high-risk types of Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is the primary cause of nearly all cases of cervical cancer due to the integration of viral DNA into host cells, leading to cellular transformation. The HPV oncoproteins E6 and E7 interfere with host tumor suppressor proteins, such as p and retinoblastoma protein, promoting uncontrolled cell proliferation and malignant progression in the cervical epithelium.
Choice C rationale
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs, most commonly caused by ascending infection from the cervix with bacteria, particularly Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) typically causes localized genital lesions or, less commonly, systemic symptoms, but it is not generally recognized as a significant causative agent for the upper tract infection that defines PID.
Choice D rationale
A neonate can acquire Chlamydia trachomatis during vaginal birth from an infected mother, leading to neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum), an infection of the mucous membrane lining the eyelids. If this infection is untreated, it can cause corneal scarring, potentially leading to visual impairment or blindness, underscoring the importance of prenatal screening and prophylactic eye treatment.
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