A client comes to the primary healthcare clinic and reports that her current sexual partner was recently diagnosed with gonorrhea.
Which treatment would you expect the client and her partner to receive?
A single dose of Ceftriaxone, injected intramuscular (IM).
A 7-day oral (PO) dosing of Doxycycline.
A single dose of Penicillin, injected intramuscular (IM).
No treatment is necessary; gonorrhea typically goes away on its own.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea is typically a single 500 mg intramuscular (IM) injection of Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin. This regimen is highly effective because Ceftriaxone achieves high, sustained serum and tissue levels and addresses the increasing rates of antimicrobial resistance seen in Neisseria gonorrhoeae, providing a reliable, single-dose cure to both the client and their partner.
Choice B rationale
Doxycycline is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infection, which frequently co-occurs with gonorrhea. While it may be administered alongside Ceftriaxone for dual coverage if chlamydia hasn't been ruled out, it is not the monotherapy for gonorrhea, which requires the higher efficacy of a cephalosporin like Ceftriaxone due to resistance patterns.
Choice C rationale
Penicillin is no longer the standard treatment for gonorrhea because Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed widespread resistance to penicillins and many other older antibiotics through plasmid-mediated β-lactamase production and chromosomal mutations. Using a single dose of Penicillin would likely result in treatment failure and the progression of the infection, thus necessitating the use of the more potent Ceftriaxone.
Choice D rationale
Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and is a serious sexually transmitted infection (STI) that requires prompt antibiotic treatment. It does not typically resolve on its own. Untreated infection can lead to severe complications, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymitis in men, and potentially disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI), highlighting the necessity of effective treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Following a Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP), the continuous bladder irrigation is intended to flush out blood and prevent clot formation. The presence of small blood clots is common and expected as a result of surgical trauma and is not typically an immediate priority unless they cause obstruction.
Choice B rationale
The presence of bright red urine (frank hematuria) or dark clots suggests active arterial bleeding in the prostatic bed, which is a significant and potentially life-threatening complication following a TURP. Maintaining continuous bladder irrigation and notifying the healthcare provider immediately is the priority to prevent hemorrhage, potential hypovolemic shock, and ensure proper clot evacuation.
Choice C rationale
A continuous urge to void (bladder spasms) is a common, though uncomfortable, finding post-TURP due to the irritation of the bladder mucosa from the catheter balloon or the surgical procedure itself. While it requires intervention (e.g., antispasmodic medication), it is not a direct threat to life or organ function and is therefore a lower priority than active bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Burning around the urinary catheter insertion site can indicate localized irritation, inflammation, or a potential urinary tract infection (UTI). Although requiring assessment and intervention, signs of local irritation or potential infection are less immediately life-threatening than active arterial hemorrhage, making it a lower priority than bright red urine.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Applying cold packs, or cryotherapy, is primarily indicated for acute soft tissue injuries to induce vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing local blood flow, metabolism, and inflammation, which reduces pain and swelling. For chronic or recurring lower back pain prevention, heat is often more effective, as it promotes vasodilation, increasing blood flow to relax muscles and reduce stiffness, making cold less suitable as a frequent preventative strategy.
Choice B rationale
Prolonged static postures, like sitting, increase intradiscal pressure and muscle tension in the lumbar region, leading to muscle fatigue and reduced blood flow to the supporting structures, which exacerbates back pain. Regular movement and changing positions is crucial to maintain flexibility, promote circulation, and distribute mechanical stress across different structures, minimizing sustained strain on the spinal ligaments and discs.
Choice C rationale
Sleeping on a mattress that is too soft fails to provide adequate support for the spine's natural curvature (lumbar lordosis), allowing the trunk to sink, which can lead to spinal misalignment and increased strain on the back muscles and ligaments. A medium-firm mattress is generally recommended to maintain proper spinal alignment during sleep, which reduces mechanical stress and prevents morning stiffness and pain.
Choice D rationale
Asking for help when moving clients ensures the nurse can use proper body mechanics, which involves keeping the load close to the body, maintaining a wide base of support, and lifting with the legs, not the back. This principle minimizes the mechanical stress and sheer forces applied to the intervertebral discs and paraspinal muscles, significantly lowering the risk of acute muscle strains or chronic cumulative trauma to the lumbar spine.
Choice E rationale
Partial sit-ups with the knees bent strengthen the abdominal and oblique muscles, which are key components of the body's core musculature. A strong core acts as a stabilizer for the lumbar spine, increasing intra-abdominal pressure to support the vertebral column and reducing the load and mechanical strain on the lower back structures during movement and daily activities, thereby preventing injury recurrence.
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