The clinic nurse is obtaining information from a client who presents for her annual wellness exam.
Which of the following statements should be used when taking a sexual health history?
"Do you practice safe sex, or should we discuss ways to improve your habits?".
"We don't need to discuss sexual health unless you have specific concerns.”.
"You're not sexually active, right? That will make this part of the visit quick.”.
"Tell me about your sexual partners and practices to ensure I address your sexual health needs.”.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
This statement is judgmental and uses a potentially shaming tone ("improve your habits"), which can inhibit open communication and a trusting therapeutic relationship. A nonjudgmental, open-ended approach is essential for obtaining an accurate sexual health history, as the client may withhold information if they feel judged, potentially leading to unmet health needs. The nurse should use neutral language to promote a comfortable environment.
Choice B rationale
Sexual health is an integral part of overall health and wellness, encompassing physical, emotional, mental, and social well-being, according to the World Health Organization. Screening for sexual activity, risk factors, and concerns is a fundamental component of a comprehensive annual wellness exam, even if the client doesn't initially volunteer specific concerns, ensuring holistic care.
Choice C rationale
This is an example of making an assumption or a closed-ended question, which limits the client's response and may lead to inaccurate data collection. Assuming a client is not sexually active can result in missed opportunities for preventative counseling, screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), and discussion of contraception. Open-ended questions are preferred for history taking.
Choice D rationale
This statement is an open-ended question that encourages the client to provide detailed, relevant information in a nonjudgmental manner, which is crucial for a complete sexual health history. It demonstrates an inclusive approach to sexual health, covering both partners and practices, allowing the nurse to assess risk factors, counsel on safe practices, and screen for STIs effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Limiting fluid intake to 1500 mL/day is contraindicated for a client with renal stones. Adequate hydration, generally 2000 to 3000 mL/day, is essential to promote diuresis and the flushing of the renal calculi through the urinary system. Insufficient fluid volume increases urine concentration, which fosters the crystallization and aggregation of stone-forming solutes, thereby worsening the condition and risk of obstruction.
Choice B rationale
Straining the urine, even with a catheter in place, is a critical intervention to capture and retrieve any passed renal calculi fragments. These fragments must be sent to the laboratory for chemical composition analysis, which guides targeted preventive dietary and pharmacological therapy. Identifying the stone type (e.g., calcium, struvite, uric acid) is fundamental for effective secondary prevention of recurrence.
Choice C rationale
Clamping the urinary catheter periodically is a technique used to promote bladder muscle tone retraining, which is not indicated for a client with acute renal stones. Furthermore, clamping the catheter increases the risk of urinary stasis, promoting bacterial proliferation and reflux of urine back into the kidneys, significantly elevating the risk of pyelonephritis and sepsis.
Choice D rationale
Maintaining a client with renal stones on bed rest is not generally recommended and can be detrimental. Ambulation and mobility are encouraged as they promote the peristaltic movement of the ureters, which assists in the gravitational passage of the stone fragments. Prolonged immobility also increases the risk of bone demineralization, potentially contributing to calcium-based stone formation. 80mm.5pt.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. This mechanism causes increased excretion of both water and potassium, making the client susceptible to hypokalemia (serum potassium <3.5 mEq/L), not hyperkalemia, thereby requiring regular electrolyte monitoring.
Choice B rationale
Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that acts on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, blocking the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium. Its high efficacy in causing diuresis leads to significant renal loss of potassium, which places the client at a high risk for developing hypokalemia (serum potassium <3.5 mEq/L), not the elevated levels of hyperkalemia.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that acts primarily by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which inhibits the reabsorption of water. It is predominantly used for reducing cerebral edema and intraocular pressure; it does not significantly interfere with the renal tubular handling of potassium, so it poses little risk for hyperkalemia.
Choice D rationale
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that functions as an aldosterone receptor antagonist in the distal nephron. By blocking aldosterone's effects, it promotes sodium and water excretion while retaining potassium, which, especially in clients with impaired kidney function, significantly elevates the risk for life-threatening hyperkalemia (serum potassium >5.0 mEq/L). 80mm.5pt.
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