The clinic nurse is obtaining information from a client who presents for her annual wellness exam.
Which of the following statements should be used when taking a sexual health history?
"Do you practice safe sex, or should we discuss ways to improve your habits?".
"We don't need to discuss sexual health unless you have specific concerns.”.
"You're not sexually active, right? That will make this part of the visit quick.”.
"Tell me about your sexual partners and practices to ensure I address your sexual health needs.”.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
This statement is judgmental and uses a potentially shaming tone ("improve your habits"), which can inhibit open communication and a trusting therapeutic relationship. A nonjudgmental, open-ended approach is essential for obtaining an accurate sexual health history, as the client may withhold information if they feel judged, potentially leading to unmet health needs. The nurse should use neutral language to promote a comfortable environment.
Choice B rationale
Sexual health is an integral part of overall health and wellness, encompassing physical, emotional, mental, and social well-being, according to the World Health Organization. Screening for sexual activity, risk factors, and concerns is a fundamental component of a comprehensive annual wellness exam, even if the client doesn't initially volunteer specific concerns, ensuring holistic care.
Choice C rationale
This is an example of making an assumption or a closed-ended question, which limits the client's response and may lead to inaccurate data collection. Assuming a client is not sexually active can result in missed opportunities for preventative counseling, screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), and discussion of contraception. Open-ended questions are preferred for history taking.
Choice D rationale
This statement is an open-ended question that encourages the client to provide detailed, relevant information in a nonjudgmental manner, which is crucial for a complete sexual health history. It demonstrates an inclusive approach to sexual health, covering both partners and practices, allowing the nurse to assess risk factors, counsel on safe practices, and screen for STIs effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin) and warfarin (a vitamin K antagonist) are anticoagulants that prevent the formation of new fibrin clots or the enlargement of existing ones, but they do not dissolve established clots; that is the function of thrombolytic agents like tissue plasminogen activator. Administering both aims for adequate anticoagulation until warfarin is fully effective. The correct response emphasizes discontinuing enoxaparin when warfarin is therapeutic.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin, an oral anticoagulant, inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X), requiring several days to reach a therapeutic effect, which is monitored by the International Normalized Ratio (INR) (therapeutic range typically 2.0–3.0). Enoxaparin, an injectable anticoagulant with immediate onset, is continued concurrently to maintain protection until the INR is therapeutic and adequate anticoagulation is achieved via warfarin alone, a process called bridging.
Choice C rationale
Enoxaparin and warfarin have distinct mechanisms of action and do not enhance each other's effects synergistically; rather, they inhibit different points in the coagulation cascade. Enoxaparin mainly inhibits Factor Xa, while warfarin inhibits Vitamin K-dependent clotting factor synthesis. They are used together to provide immediate anticoagulation (enoxaparin) while awaiting warfarin's delayed onset.
Choice D rationale
While patient education is crucial, responding by deferring the client's question is not therapeutic and does not address the client's need for understanding their therapy. The nurse should explain the rationale for concurrent therapy (bridging) and the planned discontinuation of the injectable drug once the oral medication is within its therapeutic range.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) at a low daily dose of 81 mg is typically used for its antiplatelet effects (irreversible inhibition of COX-1 in platelets) to prevent cardiovascular events. This dose has minimal analgesic or anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, monitoring a pain rating of 6 or more is not a primary concern for this specific prophylactic indication.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging increased intake of green leafy vegetables, which are rich in Vitamin K, is relevant for clients on warfarin (Coumadin), as Vitamin K can counteract its effect. Aspirin, however, works on platelet aggregation and is not affected by dietary Vitamin K levels. This advice is irrelevant to the pharmacodynamics of aspirin.
Choice C rationale
Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding, a side effect that is dose-dependent but still possible with low-dose therapy. Black, tarry stools (melena) are an indication of upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to the degradation of hemoglobin to hematin. The nurse must monitor for this serious adverse effect.
Choice D rationale
Aspirin, especially at higher doses, can impair renal function by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which is essential for maintaining renal blood flow. This effect typically leads to an increase (not a sudden drop) in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (normal range 8-20 mg/dL) and creatinine (normal range 0.6-1.2 mg/dL) levels due to decreased glomerular filtration.
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