A charge nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse and observes the newly licensed nurse imitating her behaviors. The nurse should recognize this behavior as which of the following defense mechanisms?
Reaction formation
Suppression
identification
Compensation
The Correct Answer is C
A. Reaction Formation:
Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where an individual expresses feelings or behaviors that are the opposite of their true feelings or impulses. For example, someone who harbors unconscious aggressive feelings might display exaggerated friendliness and kindness. In the given scenario, the behavior of the newly licensed nurse is not contradictory to their true feelings; they are imitating the charge nurse willingly.
B. Suppression:
Suppression is a conscious effort to push down or hide certain thoughts or feelings. Unlike repression (which is unconscious), suppression involves a deliberate choice not to think about or dwell on certain emotions or thoughts. In the scenario, the behavior of the newly licensed nurse is not an example of suppression because they are not consciously trying to hide their actions.
C. Identification:
Identification is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models their behavior, feelings, or attitudes after those of someone else, especially someone they perceive as powerful or significant. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse is imitating the behaviors of the charge nurse, which is an example of identification.
D. Compensation:
Compensation is a defense mechanism where an individual consciously or unconsciously covers up weaknesses, frustrations, or feelings of inadequacy by emphasizing strengths or seeking to excel in other areas. It involves making up for a perceived lack by putting extra effort into another aspect of life. The scenario does not describe the newly licensed nurse compensating for any perceived weakness; they are simply imitating the charge nurse's behavior.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. The client follows a strict routine of daily activities:
This choice is less likely to be a risk factor for borderline personality disorder. BPD is characterized by impulsivity and difficulties in maintaining stable routines or relationships. Individuals with BPD often struggle with adhering to strict routines due to impulsive behaviors and emotional dysregulation.
B. The client reports having a substance use disorder:
Individuals with borderline personality disorder often struggle with impulse control and emotional regulation. Substance use can be a way for them to cope with intense emotions and mood swings. The presence of a substance use disorder can indicate a higher risk for borderline personality disorder due to these coping mechanisms.
C. The client is a twin:
Being a twin, in itself, is not a direct risk factor for borderline personality disorder. However, if there are genetic or environmental factors contributing to the disorder, both twins might be at risk due to shared genetic material and upbringing. It's essential to consider the specific familial and environmental context when assessing the risk in twins.
D. The client's mother abandoned him as a child:
Early childhood experiences play a significant role in the development of personality disorders, including borderline personality disorder. Abandonment, neglect, or other forms of trauma can disrupt a child's sense of security and trust, leading to difficulties in regulating emotions and forming stable relationships later in life.
E. The client's father has an impulse control disorder:
Growing up in an environment where a parent has an impulse control disorder can create an unstable living situation. Inconsistent parenting and unpredictable behaviors can contribute to emotional instability and difficulties in regulating impulses, which are hallmark features of borderline personality disorder.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Obtain a prescription for restraints on an as-needed basis:
Restraints should never be used on an as-needed basis without a specific, individualized order from a healthcare provider. Restraints are a significant intervention that should only be used when necessary, and they require a clear prescription outlining the duration, reason, and method of application.
B. Have the provider assess the client within 1 hour after applying the restraints:
This option is the correct choice. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider promptly after restraints are applied. The provider needs to assess the patient's physical and mental status, and the appropriateness of the restraints, and consider alternatives or modifications to the intervention. Regular assessments ensure the patient's safety and well-being while addressing the initial reason for applying restraints.
C. Request that the provider renew the prescription for restraints every 8 hours:
Restraining a patient every 8 hours without ongoing assessment and a clear clinical rationale is inappropriate and goes against best practices. Restraints should only be used when absolutely necessary and should be reevaluated frequently. Requesting a renewal on a fixed schedule without considering the patient's changing condition is not a safe or ethical approach.
D. Evaluate the client hourly while the restraints are applied:
While regular monitoring of a patient in restraints is essential, evaluating the patient every hour might not be sufficient, especially in the early stages after the application of restraints. The patient should be continuously monitored, with assessments conducted more frequently, especially immediately after applying the restraints, to ensure their safety and well-being.
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