A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?
The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.
The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.
The medication should not be taken until he is at school.
She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking
methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.
D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Diarrhea is not typically associated with ergotamine toxicity. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting are more common adverse effects of ergotamine use.
B. Delirium is a potential sign of ergotamine toxicity. At toxic levels, ergotamine can cause central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and delirium.
C. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect of ergotamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties. However, hypotension alone may not indicate ergotamine toxicity.
D. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of ergotamine. Ergotamine is more commonly associated with vasoconstriction and can lead to hypertension or tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
A. Diarrhea is not typically associated with ergotamine toxicity. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting are more common adverse effects of ergotamine use.
B. Delirium is a potential sign of ergotamine toxicity. At toxic levels, ergotamine can cause central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and delirium.
C. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect of ergotamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties. However, hypotension alone may not indicate ergotamine toxicity.
D. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of ergotamine. Ergotamine is more commonly associated with vasoconstriction and can lead to hypertension or tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The benefit to eating frequent small meals during the day: Nonselective beta-blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia, making it harder for patients with diabetes to recognize low
blood sugar levels. Eating frequent small meals can help stabilize blood sugar levels and reduce the risk of hypoglycemia.
B. Perform more frequent blood glucose checks due to effects of the drug: While it's important for patients with diabetes to monitor their blood glucose levels regularly, this instruction doesn't directly address the potential masking of hypoglycemia symptoms by beta-blockers.
C. The need to weight himself once per week at the same time of the day: Weight monitoring is important for overall health management but is not specifically related to the use of nonselective beta-blockers in diabetes management.
D. The correct method for taking their own apical pulse: Knowing how to take one's own apical pulse is important for some individuals, but it's not directly related to the management of
diabetes with nonselective beta-blockers.
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