A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?

The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.

The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.

The medication should not be taken until he is at school.

She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking

methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.

D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["50"]

Explanation

Gtt/min= Volume per hour× Drop factor/ Time in minutes per hour Given:

Volume per hour = 150 mL Drop factor = 20 gtt/mL

Time in minutes per hour = 60 minutes Gtt/min= 150mL/hr×20gtt/mL/60min/hr Gtt/min=50
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min

Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

Given:

Amantadine syrup concentration: 50 mg/5 mL Desired dose of amantadine: 150 mg

5ml contains 50mg

1ml contains 50/5= 10mg Given 10mg is in 1ml

Then 150mg will be contained in: 150/10

=15ml

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["50"]

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO every 12 hr. Available is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL syrup. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

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