A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?

The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.

The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.

The medication should not be taken until he is at school.

She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking

methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.

D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Assessing the WBC count is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
B. Assessing pulse and blood pressure is crucial before administering a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications can cause bradycardia and hypotension as side effects, so it's
important to ensure the client's baseline pulse and blood pressure are within acceptable ranges before giving the medication.
C. Assessing bowel sounds is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
D. Assessing serum sodium and potassium levels is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.

A. They have a lower dependency potential than agonists. B. They have a higher potency than agonists C. They have anti-inflammatory effects. D. They are given to reverse the effects of opiates

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Partial agonists like nalbuphine have a lower dependency potential than full agonists. This means they are less likely to lead to physical dependence or tolerance when used for pain
management.

B. Partial agonists do not necessarily have a higher potency than agonists. Potency refers to the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect, which can vary among different drugs regardless of their classification as agonists or partial agonists.
C. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used for their anti-inflammatory effects.

They are primarily used for pain management.

D. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used to reverse the effects of opiates. They may be used in certain situations to manage opioid-induced side effects or in cases of opioid overdose, but their primary indication is for pain management.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Before administering a client's prescribed nonselective adrenergic blocker, what should the nurse assess?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The drug nalbuphine is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The opioid acetaminophen/hydrocodone is prescribed for a patient who has had surgery. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication? (Select all that apply.)

When evaluating a patient who is taking orlistat, which is an intended therapeutic effect?

When monitoring a patient who is taking a cholinergic drug, the nurse will watch for which cardiovascular effect?

A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO every 12 hr. Available is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL syrup. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

A patient is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse prepares to give which drug of choice for the treatment of this condition?

The nurse is reviewing herbal therapies. Which is a common use of the herb feverfew?

A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of haloperidol?