A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?
The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.
The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.
The medication should not be taken until he is at school.
She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking
methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.
D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. CT of the brain can proceed regardless of atropine administration, as it does not directly affect the assessment of brain stem reflexes.
B. Electroencephalogram (EEG) can also proceed regardless of atropine administration, as it evaluates brain electrical activity rather than brain stem reflexes.
C. Assessment of brain stem reflexes should be postponed until all atropine is excreted and no
longer exerting its effects. Atropine can mask or alter the pupillary response and other brain stem reflexes, such as gag reflex and cough reflex, which are important indicators of neurological function.
D. Pupil response assessment should be postponed until atropine effects have dissipated, as
atropine can cause pupillary dilation, which may interfere with accurate assessment of pupil size and reactivity
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Gtt/min= Volume per hour× Drop factor/ Time in minutes per hour Given:
Volume per hour = 150 mL Drop factor = 20 gtt/mL
Time in minutes per hour = 60 minutes Gtt/min= 150mL/hr×20gtt/mL/60min/hr Gtt/min=50
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min
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