A nurse is preparing to administer methylnaltrexone 12 mg subcutaneously to a client who has opioid-induced constipation. Available is methylnaltrexone 8 mg/0.4 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["0.6"]
Step 1: Determine the dosage available per mL.
- Available dosage is 8 mg in 0.4 mL.
- Calculation: 8 mg ÷ 0.4 mL = 20 mg/mL.
- Result: 20 mg/mL.
Step 2: Calculate the volume needed for 12 mg.
- Required dosage is 12 mg.
- Calculation: 12 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 0.6 mL.
- Result: 0.6 mL.
So, the nurse should administer 0.6 mL of methylnaltrexone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is the best response because it acknowledges the client’s statement while providing realistic, evidence-based information. According to the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) and domestic violence research, the period immediately after leaving an abusive partner is often the most dangerous, as abusers may escalate threats or violence when they feel a loss of control. This response validates the client’s concerns, offers safety awareness, and opens the door for further discussion about creating a safety plan.
option B generalizes that all batterers never change, which may not be true for all situations and individuals.
Option C suggeststhat leaving will make the partner change is inappropriate and unsafe. This could give the client false hope that the abuser’s behavior will improve, when evidence shows that abusive partners rarely change without intensive intervention.
Option D may imply a threat or ultimatum, which is not appropriate and can be disempowering for the client. The most important aspect of supporting someone in an abusive relationship is to provide a non-judgmental, understanding, and empowering environment where they can explore their options and make decisions that are best for their safety and well-being.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A-Positioning in semi-Fowler’s can aid breathing but doesn’t assess crackles’ cause. It’s supportive, not diagnostic, and premature without further data
B-Instructing the client to limit fluid intake to less than 2,000 mL/day is not indicated for crackles. Fluid restriction is more commonly used in conditions like congestive heart failure where there is excessive fluid retention.
C- Preparing to administer antibiotics is not the first intervention for crackles. Crackles can be caused by various conditions, and antibiotics would only be administered if there is an underlying infection requiring treatment.
D- Reassessing after deep breathing and coughing evaluates secretion clearance, aligning with nursing assessment and Maslow’s physiological needs
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