A 40-year-old male patient diagnosed with Schizoid Personality Disorder has been admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. He consistently avoids group therapy, speaks minimally with staff, and prefers solitary activities. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to support this patient’s care plan?
Assign the patient as a leader in a small group activity to build confidence and self-esteem.
Confront the patient about his avoidance behaviors and insist on more social interaction with peers.
Provide structured one-on-one interactions that respect the patient’s need for limited emotional engagement.
Encourage daily participation in group therapy to improve social skills and reduce isolation.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Assigning leadership in a group setting may overwhelm a patient with schizoid personality disorder, as they are uncomfortable with close social interactions. This approach could increase withdrawal.
Choice B reason: Confrontation about avoidance behaviors is not therapeutic. It may heighten resistance and increase distress rather than encourage trust or engagement.
Choice C reason: Structured one-on-one interactions allow the nurse to build rapport while respecting the patient’s preference for limited emotional involvement. This is the most appropriate approach for schizoid personality disorder.
Choice D reason: Forcing daily group therapy participation may cause stress and withdrawal, as these patients are more comfortable with solitary activities. Gentle encouragement, not insistence, is better suited.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Redirecting the sibling’s concern to the patient minimizes and dismisses the sibling’s anxiety. This is not therapeutic.
Choice B reason: Schizophrenia has a genetic component, especially in identical twins, but environment and other factors also play roles. This response provides accurate information while reducing unnecessary fear.
Choice C reason: Offering referral may be helpful later, but it does not immediately address the sibling’s expressed concern or provide reassurance.
Choice D reason: Saying there is a 50-50 chance is inaccurate and unnecessarily alarming. The risk is higher in identical twins but not absolute.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sedative medications may be used in severe cases, but immediate nursing care focuses on nonpharmacologic interventions to ensure safety and reduce stimulation. Medication is not the first-line action.
Choice B reason: Providing a calm environment with reduced external stimuli while encouraging expression of feelings helps the client regain control and decreases anxiety during a panic episode. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention.
Choice C reason: Detailed problem-solving requires higher-level cognitive functioning, which is impaired during a panic attack. Attempting this intervention may increase the client’s distress.
Choice D reason: Allowing expression without guidance offers no therapeutic support and may leave the client overwhelmed by panic symptoms, prolonging the episode.
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