A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother because he has a fever and an earache. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for weight and height for his age. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
"Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?"
"Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?"
"His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease."
"You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children."
The Correct Answer is C
In this scenario, the child with a congenital heart defect is presenting with a fever and an
earache. The mother expresses concern about the child's weight and height being at the 5th percentile for his age. Given the child's medical history of a congenital heart defect, it is important for the nurse to address the mother's concerns and provide an accurate response.
The response that states "His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease" is appropriate because children with congenital heart defects may experience growth and developmental delays. Heart defects can affect the child's ability to obtain sufficient nutrients for growth, leading to slower weight and height gain. By acknowledging the relationship between the child's heart disease and his smaller size, the nurse provides the mother with an explanation for the child's growth pattern and helps alleviate concerns.
The other response options are not appropriate or helpful. Asking about the child's mental abilities or implying that the mother has not been feeding the child adequately can be perceived as judgmental or dismissive.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Initiating continuous dopamine infusion is not a priority in this situation. The client's low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances require more immediate attention.
B) Incorrect - Administering promethazine addresses symptoms like nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the primary issue of hypovolemia and low blood pressure.
C) Incorrect - Administering potassium chloride without addressing the fluid deficit can be dangerous and may lead to further electrolyte imbalances.
D) Correct- The client's vital signs and laboratory results indicate hypovolemia (low blood pressure, low sodium, and low potassium). The immediate priority is to address the fluid deficit and correct the electrolyte imbalances. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) will help increase intravascular volume and improve blood pressure, as well as correct the electrolyte imbalances to some extent.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","F"]
Explanation
As people age, the turnover of skin cells decreases, resulting in slower wound healing. This can prolong the healing process and increase the risk of complications.
The immune system's function, including T-cell function, tends to decline with age.
T-cells play a crucial role in the immune response and wound healing. Decreased T-cell function can impair the body's ability to fight infection and promote efficient healing.
With aging, there is a natural loss of subcutaneous fat, which can affect wound healing. Subcutaneous fat provides padding and protection to the underlying tissues, and its reduction can increase the risk of tissue damage and delays in healing.
Insulin resistance, pigmentation changes, and polypharmacy are not directly age-related factors that impact wound healing. Insulin resistance is a condition related to impaired glucose metabolism and can affect wound healing in individuals with diabetes or other metabolic disorders, but it is not necessarily an age-related factor. Pigmentation changes and polypharmacy (the use of multiple medications) may be associated with aging but do not directly affect the physiological processes involved in wound healing.
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