A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother because he has a fever and an earache. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for weight and height for his age. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
"Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?"
"Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?"
"His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease."
"You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children."
The Correct Answer is C
In this scenario, the child with a congenital heart defect is presenting with a fever and an
earache. The mother expresses concern about the child's weight and height being at the 5th percentile for his age. Given the child's medical history of a congenital heart defect, it is important for the nurse to address the mother's concerns and provide an accurate response.
The response that states "His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease" is appropriate because children with congenital heart defects may experience growth and developmental delays. Heart defects can affect the child's ability to obtain sufficient nutrients for growth, leading to slower weight and height gain. By acknowledging the relationship between the child's heart disease and his smaller size, the nurse provides the mother with an explanation for the child's growth pattern and helps alleviate concerns.
The other response options are not appropriate or helpful. Asking about the child's mental abilities or implying that the mother has not been feeding the child adequately can be perceived as judgmental or dismissive.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort:
- This child is reporting discomfort, which is concerning, but it doesn't indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. However, a thorough assessment is needed to rule out any serious injuries, especially to the spine.
B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia:
- While a possible broken tibia requires attention, it is not as immediately critical as symptoms such as projectile vomiting. Splinting can help stabilize the limb, but it is not an emergency that requires immediate attention compared to potential neurological issues.
C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities:
- Superficial lacerations, although they require care, are generally not immediately life-threatening. The child needs appropriate wound care and assessment for any deeper injuries, but this can be addressed in a timely manner without immediate urgency.
D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting:
- This is the most concerning presentation among the options. Headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting could be indicative of a severe head injury, and these neurological symptoms require urgent evaluation to assess for conditions such as a concussion, intracranial bleed, or increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Red blood cell count (RBC) is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
B) Correct- Core body temperature can be an indicator of systemic infection and needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for assessment and intervention.
C) Correct- Swollen lymph nodes in the groin suggest local and regional lymphatic involvement, indicating possible spread of infection. This finding needs further assessment and intervention.
D) Incorrect - The location of the initial intravenous (IV) site is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
E) Correct- An elevated white blood cell count (WBC) can indicate an inflammatory response to infection. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
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