A 25-year-old female patient presents with fever, chills, and a productive cough. Sputum culture reveals Gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following bacterial organisms is most likely responsible for this infection?

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Escherichia coli

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative bacterium and is typically associated with more severe pneumonia, particularly in patients with underlying lung disease, but it does not form clusters.
B.   Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia but typically appears as Gram-positive cocci in pairs or chains, not clusters.
C.   Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative bacterium that generally causes urinary tract infections and is not a common cause of pneumonia with Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
D.   Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive bacterium that forms clusters and is a common cause of pneumonia, particularly in young, otherwise healthy individuals, and can present with fever, chills, and productive cough. This fits the presentation and sputum findings in this patient.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Intravenous corticosteroids are the next appropriate step to reduce inflammation in the airways and improve symptoms of asthma exacerbation.
B. Providing supplemental oxygen and reassessing in 30 minutes might be necessary, but corticosteroids are the priority in this case to address the underlying inflammation.
C. A second dose of albuterol may be considered, but corticosteroids should be administered as soon as possible to treat the inflammation in the airways.
D. An oral antihistamine is not indicated for asthma exacerbations, as it does not target the underlying inflammation in the airways.

A. Discoloration of the fingers B. Swelling of the entire hand C. Pain in the forearm without hand involvement D. Positive Phalen's test E. Positive Tinel's sign F. Pain relief with wrist extension

Correct Answer is ["D","E"]

Explanation

A. Discoloration of the fingers is not typically associated with carpal tunnel syndrome, which mainly involves nerve compression.
B. Swelling of the entire hand is not a common finding in carpal tunnel syndrome, though localized swelling at the wrist may occur.
C. Pain in the forearm without hand involvement is not typical of carpal tunnel syndrome, which primarily affects the wrist and hand.
D. A positive Phalen's test is indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome, as it reproduces symptoms when the wrist is flexed.
E. A positive Tinel's sign, which involves tapping the median nerve at the wrist to elicit symptoms, is a classic test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
F. Pain relief with wrist extension is common in carpal tunnel syndrome, as extending the wrist relieves pressure on the median nerve.

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A 25-year-old female patient presents with fever, chills, and a productive cough. Sputum culture reveals Gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following bacterial organisms is most likely responsible for this infection?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a patient who reports numbness and tingling in the fingers, especially at night. The patient works as a data entry clerk. Which findings support a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome? (Select All that Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["D","E"]

Explanation

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