17-year-old student with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse which hormone causes the blood glucose level to rise. When responding the nurse should explain in language that the client can understand that liver glycogenolysis is stimulated by a hormone secreted by the islets of Langerhans Which hormone is this?
Insulin
Epinephrine
Glucagon
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Insulin is responsible for lowering blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake and storage of glucose in cells.
B. Epinephrine (adrenaline) can raise blood glucose levels in response to the "fight or flight" stress response, but it's not primarily responsible for stimulating liver glycogenolysis.
C. Glucagon is produced by the alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans and plays a crucial role in increasing blood glucose levels. It promotes the breakdown of glycogen (glycogenolysis) in the liver and the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (gluconeogenesis).
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol, which can also contribute to raising blood glucose levels but isn't primarily responsible for liver glycogenolysis.
In the context of diabetes management, understanding the role of glucagon is important because it helps individuals know how to manage hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) by administering glucagon or consuming fast-acting sources of glucose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Bone marrow transplantation.
Severe aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by a significant reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow. The primary treatment for severe aplastic anemia is a bone marrow transplantation, also known as a stem cell transplant. This procedure involves replacing the patient's dysfunctional bone marrow with healthy bone marrow or stem cells from a suitable donor. This is done to restore normal blood cell production.
Option B (Exchange transfusion) is not the primary treatment for severe aplastic anemia but may be used in certain cases to manage complications or specific symptoms.
Option C (Liver transplantation) is not a treatment for severe aplastic anemia, as this condition primarily affects the bone marrow and blood cell production.
Option D (Administration of intravenous immunoglobulin) is not the primary treatment for severe aplastic anemia but may be used in some cases to manage complications, such as infections. However, it does not address the underlying cause of the disease, which is the failure of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because Tanner staging is not solely based on developmental achievement according to age. It assesses physical development irrespective of age.
Option B is incorrect because it is not based on the color of pigmentation on the scrotum but rather on multiple physical characteristics.
Option C. Based on the development of pubic hair in girls.
The Tanner staging system, also known as sexual maturity rating or sexual maturity scale, is a system used to assess the sexual development of children and adolescents based on physical characteristics, primarily focusing on secondary sexual characteristics. It is used to assess the stage of puberty in both boys and girls. In the case of girls, it includes the development of pubic hair, breast development, and other changes like the growth of the areola.
Option D is incorrect because it doesn't solely focus on staged voice changes in males. The Tanner staging system includes a range of characteristics, including voice changes, genital development, and pubic hair growth, to assess sexual maturity in both males and females.
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