While preparing a client for surgery, the nurse marks the arm that is to be amputated and participates in a “time-out” procedure before the surgery begins.
Which sentinel event is this action intended to prevent?
The lack of healing of the stump.
Ineffective control of the client’s pain.
The removal of the wrong arm.
The client being mildly sedated.
The Correct Answer is C
This action is intended to prevent a sentinel event, which is a patient safety event that results in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm. A sentinel event is a serious adverse event that signals the need for immediate investigation and response. Removing the wrong arm would be a devastating and irreversible outcome for the patient and the health care provider.
Choice A is wrong because the lack of healing of the stump is not a sentinel event. It is a possible complication of amputation that may be related to the natural course of the patient’s illness or underlying condition.
Choice B is wrong because ineffective control of the client’s pain is not a sentinel event. It is a quality of care issue that may affect the patient’s comfort and recovery, but it does not result in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.
Choice D is wrong because the client being mildly sedated is not a sentinel event. It is a level of anesthesia that may be appropriate for some types of surgery, but it does not result in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because the nurse should not make assumptions about the family’s functionality based on their history or situation, but rather gather more information to identify their strengths and needs.
Choice A is wrong because it implies that the teenager is a problem and the mother is incapable of managing him, which is disrespectful and judgmental.
Choice C is wrong because it assumes that the mother is stressed and needs coping skills, which may not be true.
Choice D is wrong because it suggests that the mother is financially dependent on her son, which is not relevant to the question.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A client with chronic bronchitis is expected to have a cough that produces sputum for at least 3 months during two successive years. This is due to the hyperplasia of mucous glands and bronchial wall inflammation that occur in chronic bronchitis.
Choice A is wrong because SpO2 >92% is not a specific finding for chronic bronchitis.
SpO2 is a measure of oxygen saturation in the blood and can vary depending on many factors, such as altitude, smoking, and lung diseases. SpO2 may be lower than normal in COPD patients due to airflow obstruction and impaired gas exchange.
Choice B is wrong because underweight is not a typical finding for chronic bronchitis.
Underweight may be more associated with emphysema, which is another component of COPD that involves the destruction of alveolar walls and enlargement of air spaces. Emphysema can cause weight loss due to increased work of breathing and decreased appetite.
Choice C is wrong because bradypnea is not a common finding for chronic bronchitis.
Bradypnea is abnormally slow breathing rate and can be caused by various conditions, such as brain injury, drug overdose, or sleep apnea. Chronic bronchitis usually causes tachypnea, which is abnormally fast breathing rate, due to hypoxia and hypercapnia.
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