While performing a routine assessment, a nurse notices fraying on the electrical cord of a client’s continuous passive motion (CPM) device.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Report the defect to the equipment maintenance staff.
Remove the device from the room.
Initiate a requisition for a replacement CPM device.
Ensure the device inspection sticker is current.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is b. Remove the device from the room.
Choice A rationale:
- Reporting the defect to the equipment maintenance staff is essential, but it's not the immediate priority. The primary concern is to eliminate the safety hazard posed by the frayed cord to prevent potential harm to the client and others.
- Delaying the removal of the device could lead to electrical shock, fire, or other serious consequences.
- Therefore, removing the device from the room takes precedence over reporting the defect.
Choice B rationale:
- Removing the device from the room is the most appropriate first action because it:
- Eliminates the immediate safety hazard.
- Prevents potential harm to the client and others.
- Protects the device from further damage.
- Ensures the safety of the environment.
- Demonstrates the nurse's prioritization of patient safety.
Choice C rationale:
- Initiating a requisition for a replacement CPM device is necessary to ensure the client's continued treatment.
- However, it's not the first action because it doesn't address the immediate safety concern.
- The nurse should first remove the faulty device and then initiate the process for obtaining a replacement.
Choice D rationale:
- Ensuring the device inspection sticker is current is a vital part of equipment maintenance.
- However, it's not relevant to the immediate safety issue of the frayed cord.
- The presence of a current inspection sticker doesn't guarantee the device's safety or functionality at that moment.
- The nurse must prioritize removing the hazard and then follow up with appropriate documentation and reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. “I can give you information about respite care if you are interested.” Respite care is a service that provides short-term inpatient care for terminally-ill patients at a professional care facility, such as a hospital, hospice inpatient care facility, or nursing home. It is meant to relieve caregiver stress and offer them rest and time away from caregiving duties. Respite care is covered by Medicare for up to five consecutive days and no more than one respite period in a single billing period.
The nurse should offer this option to the son who is experiencing sleep deprivation due to caring for his mother.
Choice B is wrong because it suggests that the son should rely on medication to cope with his situation, which may not be appropriate or effective.
Sleeping pills may have side effects or interactions with other drugs, and they do not address the underlying cause of the son’s stress and fatigue.
Choice C is wrong because it does not acknowledge the son’s need for support or assistance.
It may sound like an empty compliment or a dismissal of the son’s concerns.
The nurse should express empathy and compassion, but also provide information and resources that can help the son.
Choice D is wrong because it does not offer any solution or guidance to the son.
It may also sound like a cliché or a generalization that does not reflect the son’s unique experience.
The nurse should avoid making assumptions or judgments about the son’s feelings or situation, and instead focus on his needs and preferences.
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