While performing a routine assessment, a nurse notices fraying on the electrical cord of a client’s continuous passive motion (CPM) device.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Report the defect to the equipment maintenance staff.
Remove the device from the room.
Initiate a requisition for a replacement CPM device.
Ensure the device inspection sticker is current.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is b. Remove the device from the room.
Choice A rationale:
- Reporting the defect to the equipment maintenance staff is essential, but it's not the immediate priority. The primary concern is to eliminate the safety hazard posed by the frayed cord to prevent potential harm to the client and others.
- Delaying the removal of the device could lead to electrical shock, fire, or other serious consequences.
- Therefore, removing the device from the room takes precedence over reporting the defect.
Choice B rationale:
- Removing the device from the room is the most appropriate first action because it:
- Eliminates the immediate safety hazard.
- Prevents potential harm to the client and others.
- Protects the device from further damage.
- Ensures the safety of the environment.
- Demonstrates the nurse's prioritization of patient safety.
Choice C rationale:
- Initiating a requisition for a replacement CPM device is necessary to ensure the client's continued treatment.
- However, it's not the first action because it doesn't address the immediate safety concern.
- The nurse should first remove the faulty device and then initiate the process for obtaining a replacement.
Choice D rationale:
- Ensuring the device inspection sticker is current is a vital part of equipment maintenance.
- However, it's not relevant to the immediate safety issue of the frayed cord.
- The presence of a current inspection sticker doesn't guarantee the device's safety or functionality at that moment.
- The nurse must prioritize removing the hazard and then follow up with appropriate documentation and reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
"Plan to take this medication with food." Is the correct statement. When providing instructions to an older adult client who has a seizure disorder and is prescribed phenytoin (an antiepileptic or anticonvulsant medication), the nurse should advise the client to take the medication with food. Phenytoin can cause gastrointestinal irritation, and taking it with food can help minimize this side effect.
Choice B reason:
"Plan to take this medication with antacids. “is not the appropriate instruction. Phenytoin should not be taken with antacids. Antacids can reduce the absorption of phenytoin, leading to decreased effectiveness of the medication. If antacids are needed for other reasons, they should be taken at least 2 hours before or after taking phenytoin.
Choice C reason:
"Limit foods that contain vitamin D while taking this medication. “This is not inappropriate instruction. There is no specific requirement to limit foods containing vitamin D while taking phenytoin. However, phenytoin may decrease the absorption of vitamin D, which could potentially affect the client's vitamin D levels. Therefore, it is essential for the client to have regular check-ups and possibly discuss the need for vitamin D supplementation with their healthcare provider.
Choice D reason:
"Limit foods that contain folic acid while taking this medication. “This is not the correct statement. Phenytoin can interfere with the absorption of folic acid (a B-vitamin). Long-term use of phenytoin may lead to folic acid deficiency. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to consume foods rich in folic acid and discuss the potential need for folic acid supplementation with their healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level that can cause shakiness, diaphoresis, confusion, and seizures. Therefore, infusing dextrose 10% in water temporarily at the same rate as the TPN can prevent this adverse effect. Dextrose 10% in water is a hypertonic solution that contains 340 calories per liter and can maintain the client’s blood glucose level until the new TPN bag arrives.
Choice A is wrong because giving 500 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution would not provide enough calories or glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes but no calories or glucose.
Choice B is wrong because temporarily discontinuing the infusion would cause hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for the client.
Choice C is wrong because slowing the TPN infusion rate would also cause hypoglycemia, as the client would receive less calories and glucose than prescribed.
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