While conducting an admission assessment of a female client with bipolar disorder, the client suddenly starts to undress and throw her clothes around the room.
What should be the nurse’s initial action?
Switch to less anxiety-provoking Questions.
Ignore the client’s inappropriate behavior.
Leave the client’s room so she can act out her anxiety.
State that it is unacceptable to undress during the interview.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While switching to less anxiety-provoking questions might help in some situations, it does not address the immediate issue of the client undressing inappropriately.
Choice B rationale
Ignoring the client’s inappropriate behavior could potentially encourage further inappropriate actions and does not respect the therapeutic boundaries necessary in a nurse-client relationship.
Choice C rationale
Leaving the client’s room might escalate the situation further and does not address the immediate issue.
Choice D rationale
The nurse should assertively but respectfully communicate that undressing is not appropriate during the interview. This sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client’s behavior.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Using a cushion when sitting can provide comfort but does not directly address the client’s electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, or weight gain.
Choice B rationale
Offering a high protein diet can be beneficial for clients with hepatic failure to support liver regeneration and prevent malnutrition. However, it does not directly address the client’s immediate issues.
Choice C rationale
Providing only distilled water does not address the client’s electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, or weight gain. In fact, it could potentially exacerbate electrolyte imbalances.
Choice D rationale
Documenting abdominal girth can help monitor for fluid accumulation (ascites), a common complication of hepatic failure that can contribute to weight gain and elevated blood pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The symptoms described - right-sided numbness and weakness in the arm and leg, along with a distinct droop on the right side of the face - are indicative of a stroke. Immediate medical intervention is crucial in such cases. Initiating two large-bore IV catheters would allow for rapid administration of necessary medications and fluids. Reviewing the inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is also important, as this type of therapy can help dissolve the clot causing the stroke and restore blood flow to the brain.
Choice B rationale
While continuous observation for transient episodes of neurological dysfunction is important in the care of a patient with suspected stroke, it is not the first course of action. Immediate medical intervention to treat the stroke is the priority.
Choice C rationale
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help reduce intracranial pressure in a patient with a stroke. However, this is not the first course of action. Immediate medical intervention to treat the stroke is the priority.
Choice D rationale
Administering aspirin can help prevent further clot formation and platelet aggregation in patients with certain types of stroke. However, aspirin is not typically the first line treatment in the acute phase of a stroke, especially when the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) has not yet been determined.
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