Which question should the nurse ask when assessing a 60-year-old patient who has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
"Have you been experiencing any difficulty in achieving an erection?"
"Have you noticed any unusual discharge from your penis?"
"Has there been a decrease in the force of your urinary stream?"
"Has there been any change in your sex life in the past year?"
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: This question is not relevant to BPH, as erectile dysfunction is not a common complication of this condition. Erectile dysfunction can have other causes, such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, medications, psychological factors, or aging.
Choice B rationale: This question is not relevant to BPH, as penile discharge is not a symptom of this condition. Penile discharge can indicate an infection, such as sexually transmitted diseases, urinary tract infections, or prostatitis.
Choice C rationale: BPH is a condition that causes enlargement of the prostate gland, which can obstruct the flow of urine and cause symptoms such as difficulty in starting or stopping urination, weak or intermittent stream, dribbling, and incomplete bladder emptying. Asking about the force of the urinary stream can help assess the severity of BPH and the need for treatment.
Choice D rationale: This question is not relevant to BPH, as sexual function is not directly affected by this condition. However, some men with BPH may experience reduced libido or satisfaction due to urinary symptoms or psychological distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.
Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.
Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice B rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice C rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice D rationale: Serosanguineous nasal drainage (a mixture of blood and clear fluid) may suggest a basilar skull fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the skull that can damage vital structures such as the brainstem, cranial nerves, or major blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications such as meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid leak, or hemorrhage.
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