Which question should the nurse ask when assessing a 60-year-old patient who has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

"Have you been experiencing any difficulty in achieving an erection?"

"Have you noticed any unusual discharge from your penis?"

"Has there been a decrease in the force of your urinary stream?"

"Has there been any change in your sex life in the past year?"

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: This question is not relevant to BPH, as erectile dysfunction is not a common complication of this condition. Erectile dysfunction can have other causes, such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, medications, psychological factors, or aging.

Choice B rationale: This question is not relevant to BPH, as penile discharge is not a symptom of this condition. Penile discharge can indicate an infection, such as sexually transmitted diseases, urinary tract infections, or prostatitis.

Choice C rationale: BPH is a condition that causes enlargement of the prostate gland, which can obstruct the flow of urine and cause symptoms such as difficulty in starting or stopping urination, weak or intermittent stream, dribbling, and incomplete bladder emptying. Asking about the force of the urinary stream can help assess the severity of BPH and the need for treatment.

Choice D rationale: This question is not relevant to BPH, as sexual function is not directly affected by this condition. However, some men with BPH may experience reduced libido or satisfaction due to urinary symptoms or psychological distress.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Metformin belongs to the biguanide class of antidiabetic medications.

Choice B rationale: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione used to treat diabetes, not a sulfonylurea.

Choice C rationale: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea used to stimulate insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes.

Choice D rationale: Repaglinide is a meglitinide, another class of drugs that stimulates insulin release.

A. 1 B. 1.4 C. 1.5 D. 0.7

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: this corresponds with 25 mg which is lower than the prescribed amount.

Choice B rationale: To answer this question, we need to use the formula: volume (mL) = dose (mg) / concentration (mg/mL). We plug in the given values: volume (mL) = 35 mg / 25 mg/mL. We simplify the fraction: volume (mL) = 7/5. We convert the fraction to a

decimal: volume (mL) = 1.4. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1.4 mL of promethazine.

Choice C rationale: this corresponds with 37.5 mg which is too high.

Choice D rationale: this corresponds with 17.5 mg which is too low.

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Which question should the nurse ask when assessing a 60-year-old patient who has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which antidiabetic medication is a sulfonylurea?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse completes visual inspection of a client's abdomen. What technique should the nurse perform next in the abdominal examination?

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While performing the genital assessment of a male client, a nurse observes that the client has curvature of the penis. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?

After reviewing the laboratory reports of a client, a nurse finds that the client has chronic pelvic inflammatory disorder (PID). Which condition should the nurse anticipate in the client?