Which physiological response will the nurse expect to assess in patients taking hydralazine (Apresoline), which is a vasodilator medication?
Cool extremities
Increased urinary output
Pale skin
Reflex tachycardia
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Cool extremities are a sign of poor peripheral perfusion, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice B reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Increased urinary output is a sign of diuresis, which can be caused by diuretic medications, not vasodilators.
Choice C reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Pale skin is a sign of reduced blood flow to the skin, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice D reason: This is a physiological response to hydralazine. Reflex tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism that occurs when the blood pressure drops due to vasodilation. The heart rate increases to maintain the cardiac output and perfusion pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The patient should not use the glucocorticoid as needed when symptoms flare. The glucocorticoid is a long-term controller medication that reduces inflammation and prevents exacerbations of COPD. It should be used regularly as prescribed, not as a rescue medication.
Choice B reason: The patient does not need to use the beta2-adrenergic agonist drug daily even when they don't have any symptoms. The beta2-adrenergic agonist is a short-acting bronchodilator that relaxes the smooth muscles of the airways and improves airflow. It should be used as needed for relief of acute symptoms, not as a maintenance medication.
Choice C reason: The beta2-adrenergic agonist does not suppress the synthesis of inflammatory mediators. The beta2-adrenergic agonist is a bronchodilator that acts on the beta2 receptors of the airways and causes relaxation of the smooth muscles. It does not have any anti-inflammatory effects.
Choice D reason: The glucocorticoid is used as prophylaxis to prevent exacerbations every day. This is the correct statement that indicates understanding of this medication regimen. The glucocorticoid is a long-term controller medication that reduces inflammation and prevents exacerbations of COPD. It should be used regularly as prescribed, along with the beta2-adrenergic agonist as needed for relief of acute symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The cells of the myocardium become hypertrophic in response to increased workload or pressure, not as a result of myocardial infarction. Hypertrophy is an adaptive mechanism that can lead to impaired ventricular function over time.
Choice B reason: The resulting hypoxia leads to ischemic injury and myocardial cell death. This is the main cause of impaired ventricular function after a myocardial infarction. The loss of viable myocardial tissue reduces the contractility and pumping ability of the heart.
Choice C reason: There is a temporary alteration in electrolyte balance that can be corrected. This is not the primary cause of impaired ventricular function after a myocardial infarction. Electrolyte imbalance can occur due to fluid loss, renal impairment, or medication side effects, but it can be managed with appropriate interventions.
Choice D reason: There is too much pressure on the heart and the ventricles begin to dysfunction. This is not the direct cause of impaired ventricular function after a myocardial infarction. Increased pressure on the heart can result from hypertension, valvular disease, or pulmonary embolism, but it is not related to myocardial ischemia or necrosis.
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