Which of the following clients should be considered a priority for immediate assessment and intervention?
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2% (less than 79%).
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
The Correct Answer is D
A. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities: Lower extremity weakness can be a side effect of epidural analgesia. While it requires monitoring, it is typically not immediately life-threatening unless accompanied by other neurological changes.
B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2%: An HbA1c of 7.2% indicates slightly above-target blood glucose control. This is a chronic management concern and does not require immediate intervention.
C. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring: Sinus arrhythmia is often a benign, expected finding, particularly in children or young adults. Continuous monitoring is appropriate, but it is not an emergent concern.
D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea: New-onset tachypnea in a client with a hip fracture can indicate a serious complication such as pulmonary embolism or fat embolism syndrome. This requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Tetracycline 200 mg PO: This prescription is incomplete because it does not specify the frequency or duration of administration, making it unclear how the medication should be given safely.
B. Cimetidine PO twice daily: The prescription lacks the dosage strength in milligrams, which is essential for accurate administration and safe dosing.
C. Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily: This prescription includes the medication name, dosage, route, and frequency, providing all essential components needed for safe administration.
D. Epoetin alfa 150 units/kg three times weekly: While it includes dose and frequency, it does not specify the route (subcutaneous or IV), which is required to complete the prescription safely.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client who is taking warfarin and has started to breastfeed: Warfarin passes into breast milk in very small amounts and is generally considered compatible with breastfeeding. However, the infant’s coagulation status should be monitored, and follow-up with the healthcare provider is appropriate to ensure safety.
B. A client who is taking bumetanide and reports an increase in urinary frequency: Increased urination is an expected pharmacologic effect of loop diuretics like bumetanide. This finding does not require follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
C. A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration: A positive Mantoux test requires interpretation by a healthcare provider, but the presence of induration alone is a normal finding that triggers standard follow-up for tuberculosis screening.
D. A client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and is taking sodium phosphate: Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep for colonoscopy. As long as the client follows the prescribed instructions and has no contraindications, this does not require additional follow-up.
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