Which of the following are contraindications for VBAC? (Select All that Apply.).

A prior vaginal delivery.

Gestation of 42 weeks.

Maternal obesity.

One prior cesarean delivery.

Macrosomic fetus.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : C,E

Choice A reason:

A prior vaginal delivery is not a contraindication for VBAC. In fact, it is a positive predictor of success for VBAC, as it indicates that the woman has a proven pelvis and can tolerate labor.

Choice B reason:

The gestation of 42 weeks is not a contraindication for VBAC. However, it is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth while awaiting spontaneous labor, which should be balanced against the risks of induction of labor or elective repeat cesarean.

Choice C reason:

Maternal obesity is a relative contraindication for VBAC. It is associated with a lower success rate of VBAC, a higher risk of uterine rupture, and a higher risk of maternal and neonatal complications. The decision to attempt VBAC in obese women should be made on a case-by-case basis by a senior obstetrician.

Choice D reason:

One prior cesarean delivery is not a contraindication for VBAC. Most women who have had one prior lower segment cesarean delivery are eligible for VBAC, as the risk of uterine rupture is low (0.5%) and the success rate is high (72-75%).

Choice E reason:

A macrosomic fetus is a relative contraindication for VBAC. It is associated with a lower success rate of VBAC, a higher risk of uterine rupture, and a higher risk of shoulder dystocia and birth trauma. The decision to attempt VBAC in women with suspected macrosomia should be made on a case-by-case basis by a senior obstetrician.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

This is a caput succedaneum, which is a collection of fluid from pressure of the vacuum extractor. This is the correct answer because caput succedaneum is a swelling of the scalp that crosses the suture line and is caused by prolonged pressure on the baby's head during delivery. It can also result from the use of vacuum extraction or forceps. Caput succedaneum is harmless and usually resolves on its own within a few days.

Choice B reason:

This is erythema toxicum, which is a transient allergic reaction that causes edema in the skin. This is incorrect because erythema toxicum is a common rash that affects newborns, but it does not cause swelling of the scalp or cross the suture line. It appears as red blotches with small white or yellow bumps that can occur anywhere on the body. Erythema toxicum is also harmless and usually disappears within a week.

Choice C reason:

This is a cephalhematoma, which will resolve on its own in 3 to 5 days. This is incorrect because cephalhematoma is bleeding under the scalp that does not cross the suture line and is caused by ruptured blood vessels in the scalp. It can also result from the use of vacuum extraction or forceps. Cephalhematoma may take weeks or months to resolve and can increase the risk of jaundice.

Choice D reason:

This is a Mongolian spot, which is found on many newborns. This is incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray patches of skin that are present at birth and are caused by melanocytes (pigment-producing cells) that are trapped in the deeper layers of the skin. They are not related to swelling or pressure on the head and usually fade by age 5.

A. Placental insufficiency B. Primipara C. Maternal obesity D. Perinatal asphyxia

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Placental insufficiency is a condition in which the placenta does not deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to the developing baby, resulting in restricted growth and development. This is one of the most common causes of SGA babies.

Choice B reason:

Primipara means a woman who is pregnant for the first time or who has given birth to one child. Primipara is not a cause of SGA, although some studies have suggested that first-time mothers may have a slightly higher risk of having a low-birth-weight baby than multiparous women.

Choice C reason:

Maternal obesity is a condition in which the mother has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or higher before or during pregnancy. Maternal obesity is not a cause of SGA, but rather a risk factor for having a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) baby, which can lead to complications such as macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, and birth trauma.

Choice D reason:

Perinatal asphyxia is a condition in which the baby does not receive enough oxygen before, during, or after birth, causing hypoxia and acidosis. Perinatal asphyxia is not a cause of SGA, but rather a possible complication of SGA, especially if the placental insufficiency is severe or prolonged. Perinatal asphyxia can damage the brain and other organs of the baby and lead to long-term neurological impairments.

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Which of the following are contraindications for VBAC? (Select All that Apply.).

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the mother of a newborn who is small for gestational age. Which of the following should the nurse include as a cause of this condition?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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