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Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]

A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dL (10.55 mmol/L) today and had 160 mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L) yesterday.

A client with a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL (4.34 mmol/L).

A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 500/mm3 today and had 2,000/mm3 yesterday.

A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Elevated glucose (190 mg/dL) in pancreatitis needs monitoring but is less urgent than severe neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks life-threatening infections. Glucose can be managed with insulin, per diabetes and pancreatitis care protocols, but neutropenia requires immediate intervention.

Choice B reason: Hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL in a GI bleed is critical but less immediate, as the client is receiving a transfusion. Neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3) poses an urgent infection risk, requiring isolation. Transfusion addresses anemia, per bleeding and hematology care standards.

Choice C reason: An ANC <500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, posing an immediate infection risk in cancer patients, requiring urgent isolation and antibiotics. This rapid drop from 2,000/mm3 demands priority intervention to prevent sepsis, per oncology and infection control protocols in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Elevated bilirubin in hepatitis is concerning but less urgent than neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks sepsis. Jaundice requires monitoring and treatment, but severe infection risk takes precedence, per liver disease and critical care prioritization standards in nursing practice.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering warfarin with an INR of 4.8 is dangerous, as it exceeds the therapeutic range (2.0–3.0), indicating excessive anticoagulation. This risks bleeding, as warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Notifying the provider ensures dose adjustment or reversal, preventing hemorrhage, making this action unsafe.

Choice B reason: An INR of 4.8 indicates over-anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, increasing bleeding risk due to warfarin’s inhibition of clotting factors. Notifying the provider is critical for dose reduction or vitamin K administration, addressing the pathophysiological risk of hemorrhage, ensuring patient safety and preventing life-threatening complications.

Choice C reason: Encouraging green leafy vegetables, high in vitamin K, counteracts warfarin, lowering INR, but is inappropriate without provider guidance at INR 4.8, risking bleeding. Provider notification ensures controlled management, as unregulated dietary changes disrupt anticoagulation stability, making this action potentially harmful.

Choice D reason: Monitoring for bleeding is important but secondary to notifying the provider at INR 4.8, indicating critical over-anticoagulation. Immediate provider intervention adjusts warfarin or administers reversal agents, preventing hemorrhage. Monitoring delays urgent action needed to correct the clotting factor imbalance, making it less immediate.

A. “Your PCA pump has just been discontinued, and you need to wait at least one hour before leaving the unit.” B. “As long as you go to the smoking area in a wheelchair, it will be all right for you to go smoke.” C. “You may smoke in your room if you keep the door closed and open a window.” D. “Smoking is hazardous to your health, and since you just had surgery, it would be best for you to avoid smoking.”

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Delaying smoking for one hour is arbitrary and does not address smoking’s risks post-surgery. Nicotine causes vasoconstriction, reducing wound perfusion, and carbon monoxide impairs oxygen delivery, delaying healing. Advising against smoking mitigates these risks, promoting recovery, making this response less effective than cessation advice.

Choice B reason: Allowing smoking in a wheelchair ignores postoperative risks. Nicotine’s vasoconstriction reduces tissue oxygenation, and carbon monoxide lowers hemoglobin’s capacity, impairing healing. This increases infection or thrombosis risk. Advising against smoking addresses these physiological harms, prioritizing wound recovery over facilitating smoking, which is detrimental.

Choice C reason: Smoking in the room violates hospital safety and exposes others to secondhand smoke. Nicotine and carbon monoxide reduce tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery, delaying postoperative healing. Advising against smoking prevents these complications, ensuring better recovery, making this response unsafe and inappropriate for surgical patients.

Choice D reason: Advising against smoking is critical, as nicotine causes vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow to surgical sites, and carbon monoxide impairs oxygen delivery, delaying healing. These increase infection and thrombosis risks post-surgery. This response promotes optimal recovery, addressing physiological needs for wound healing in the critical 24-hour period.

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Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse? Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse notes the client’s INR is 4.8. Which action should the nurse take? Reference Range: INR [2.0 to 3.0 for atrial fibrillation].

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When the nurse discontinues a 24-hour postoperative client’s patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump, the client asks to go to the hospital’s smoking area to smoke a cigarette. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client is hospitalized with an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) exacerbation and is being treated with a corticosteroid. The client develops a rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness. Which action should the nurse take?

The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed glaucoma about the condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

The nurse observes an adult client perform a return demonstration of diaphragmatic breathing. The client inhales while holding the abdomen, then removes the hand to allow expansion of the abdomen during exhalation. Which action should the nurse take after observing the client’s demonstration?

Prior to initiating digital removal of a fecal impaction, it is most important for the nurse to perform which client assessment?

A client has a prescription for the insertion of a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. When inserting the nasogastric tube, the nurse observes an immediate return of “coffee ground” drainage. Which action should the nurse implement?

The nurse attaches a pulse oximeter to a client’s finger and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?

During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?

The CAGE questionnaire asks four questions and is a widely used tool to screen for alcoholism. Which of the four questions included in the CAGE questionnaire is most indicative of alcoholism?

Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]