Which administration strategy can a patient implement to reduce flushing, the most common adverse effect of niacin therapy?
Take before starting daily activities.
Take with a sedative.
Take with grapefruit juice.
Take with an NSAID such as ibuprofen.
The Correct Answer is D
Taking niacin with an NSAID such as ibuprofen can reduce flushing, the most common adverse effect of niacin therapy. Flushing is a side effect of taking large doses of niacin (vitamin B3) supplements. It happens when the niacin causes the small blood vessels in your skin to dilate so more blood can rush through. Flushing can cause skin redness, warmth, itching, tingling, or burning sensations.
Choice A is wrong because taking niacin before starting daily activities can increase the risk of flushing and interfere with your routine. Flushing usually occurs within 15 to 30 minutes of taking niacin and lasts for about an hour.
Choice B is wrong because taking niacin with a sedative can increase the risk of liver damage, especially if the sedative is acetaminophen (Tylenol). Niacin can also cause liver problems at high doses, so combining it with another liver-toxic drug is not advisable.
Choice C is wrong because taking niacin with grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects, such as low blood pressure, dizziness, or fainting. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of some drugs, including niacin, and make them more potent or toxic.
Normal ranges for niacin intake vary depending on age and gender. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for adult males is 16 mg per day and for adult females is 14 mg per day. Higher doses of niacin may be prescribed by a doctor to treat high cholesterol or other conditions, but they should be taken under medical supervision and with caution.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Food high in potassium should be avoided for clients taking ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitors are drugs that block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the secretion of aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone that increases the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. By inhibiting angiotensin II, ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure and reduce the loss of potassium. However, this can also lead to hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood that can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.Therefore, clients taking ACE inhibitors should limit their intake of foods that are rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, tomatoes, potatoes, spinach, beans, nuts, and salt substitutes.
Choice B is wrong because a low sodium diet is recommended for clients taking ACE inhibitors.
A low sodium diet can help lower blood pressure and reduce fluid retention, which are beneficial effects for clients with hypertension, heart failure, or chronic kidney disease.A low-potassium diet should aim for potassium intake of less than 50 or 75 mmol/day and sodium intake of less than 60 mmol/day for hypertensive patients with chronic kidney disease.
Choice C is wrong because adequate fluid intake is not contraindicated for clients taking ACE inhibitors.
Adequate fluid intake can help prevent dehydration and maintain kidney function, especially in patients with diabetes or nephropathy.However, excessive fluid intake may worsen heart failure or edema in some patients, so fluid intake should be individualized and monitored according to the patient’s condition and response to therapy.
Choice D is wrong because foods low in potassium are not harmful for clients taking ACE inhibitors.
Foods low in potassium do not affect the serum potassium level or the risk of hyperkalemia in clients taking ACE inhibitors.However, foods low in potassium may not provide enough dietary potassium for normal cellular functions, so a balanced diet that includes moderate amounts of potassium-rich foods is advisable.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Hypokalemia is a condition of low potassium levels in the blood, which can be caused by diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix) that increase the excretion of potassium in the urine. Potassium is an important electrolyte that helps regulate the function of nerves and muscles, including the heart.Low potassium levels can cause symptoms such as confusion, tremors, muscle cramps, and nausea, which are consistent with the patient’s presentation.
Choice B, renal failure, is wrong because furosemide is used to treat fluid retention and edema caused by kidney disease, not to cause it.Renal failure would also cause symptoms such as decreased urine output, swelling, fatigue, and shortness of breath, which are not mentioned in the question.
Choice C, hyperkalemia, is wrong because hyperkalemia is a condition of high potassium levels in the blood, which can be caused by kidney disease or certain medications that decrease the excretion of potassium in the urine.Hyperkalemia can cause symptoms such as weakness, irregular heartbeat, paralysis, and chest pain, which are different from the patient’s symptoms.
Choice D, heart failure, is wrong because furosemide is also used to treat fluid retention and edema caused by heart failure, not to cause it.Heart failure would also cause symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, fatigue, and rapid weight gain, which are not mentioned in the question.
Normal ranges for potassium levels in the blood are 3.5 to 5.0 milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L) for adults and 3.4 to 4.7 mEq/L for children.
A level below 3.5 mEq/L is considered hypokalemic and a level above 5.0 mEq/L is considered hyperkalemic.
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