Which administration strategy can a patient implement to reduce flushing, the most common adverse effect of niacin therapy?
Take before starting daily activities.
Take with a sedative.
Take with grapefruit juice.
Take with an NSAID such as ibuprofen.
The Correct Answer is D
Taking niacin with an NSAID such as ibuprofen can reduce flushing, the most common adverse effect of niacin therapy. Flushing is a side effect of taking large doses of niacin (vitamin B3) supplements. It happens when the niacin causes the small blood vessels in your skin to dilate so more blood can rush through. Flushing can cause skin redness, warmth, itching, tingling, or burning sensations.
Choice A is wrong because taking niacin before starting daily activities can increase the risk of flushing and interfere with your routine. Flushing usually occurs within 15 to 30 minutes of taking niacin and lasts for about an hour.
Choice B is wrong because taking niacin with a sedative can increase the risk of liver damage, especially if the sedative is acetaminophen (Tylenol). Niacin can also cause liver problems at high doses, so combining it with another liver-toxic drug is not advisable.
Choice C is wrong because taking niacin with grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects, such as low blood pressure, dizziness, or fainting. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of some drugs, including niacin, and make them more potent or toxic.
Normal ranges for niacin intake vary depending on age and gender. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for adult males is 16 mg per day and for adult females is 14 mg per day. Higher doses of niacin may be prescribed by a doctor to treat high cholesterol or other conditions, but they should be taken under medical supervision and with caution.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Class IV antidysrhythmics or calcium channel blockers have the action ofdecreasing the flow of calcium ionsinto the cardiac and vascular smooth muscle cells, thusdecreasing heart rate and contractions.
This leads to vasodilation and myocardial depression, which can help control arrhythmias, hypertension and angina.
Choice A is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not increase blood vessel spasm, but rather relax them by inhibiting the calcium influx that causes contraction.
Choice C is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not promote platelet aggregation, but rather inhibit it by interfering with the calcium-dependent binding of fibrinogen to platelets.
Choice D is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not enhance sympathetic nervous system activity, but rather counteract it by reducing the cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
Some normal ranges for reference are:
• Heart rate: 60-100 beats per minute
• Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
• Calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because a PTT (partial thromboplastin time) test measures how long it takes for blood to clot. A normal PTT range is between 25 to 35 seconds. If the patient’s PTT is too long and greater than 80 seconds, it means their blood is taking too long to clot and they are at risk of bleeding excessively. The nurse should notify the doctor and expect an order to hold the dose of heparin, a type of anticoagulant that prevents blood clots by prolonging the PTT.
Choice A is wrong because continuing with the same dosage of heparin would not correct the prolonged PTT and could cause more bleeding problems for the patient.
Choice C is wrong because increasing the dosage of heparin would further prolong the PTT and increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because decreasing the dosage of heparin would not be enough to bring the PTT back to normal range and would still pose a bleeding risk for the patient.
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