Which action should the nurse implement to assess the effectiveness of amlodipine?

Monitor the client's serum electrolytes.

Measure the client's blood pressure.

Review the client's intake and output.

Note the client's serum calcium levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Monitor the client's serum electrolytes:
Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, primarily affects blood pressure and not directly electrolyte levels. Monitoring electrolytes is more relevant for medications that affect electrolyte balance, such as diuretics or certain antihypertensives.

B. Measure the client's blood pressure:
Amlodipine is used to treat hypertension and angina by relaxing blood vessels. The primary measure of its effectiveness is the reduction in blood pressure. Therefore, measuring the client’s blood pressure is crucial to assess whether the medication is effectively managing hypertension.

C. Review the client's intake and output:
While monitoring intake and output is important for assessing fluid balance and kidney function, it is not the primary method for evaluating the effectiveness of amlodipine in controlling blood pressure.

D. Note the client's serum calcium levels:
Amlodipine affects calcium channels but does not directly influence serum calcium levels significantly. Serum calcium levels are not used to assess the effectiveness of amlodipine in treating hypertension or angina.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hematocrit 42% (0.42 volume fraction):
A hematocrit of 42% is within the normal reference range for males (42% to 52%). While it is important to monitor hematocrit levels, this finding alone does not indicate an immediate issue.

B. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL (8.07 mmol/L):
A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is slightly below the normal range for males (14 to 18 g/dL). However, it is not critically low and may not require immediate intervention without additional context or symptoms.

C. Positive guaiac of stool:
A positive guaiac test for stool indicates the presence of occult blood in the stool, which could suggest gastrointestinal bleeding. Given the client's history of heartburn, indigestion, and use of ibuprofen (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding), this finding is concerning and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

D. Gastric pH 2.0:
A gastric pH of 2.0 is within the normal range for gastric acid, as the normal pH of gastric acid typically ranges from 1.5 to 3.5. This finding is expected and does not indicate an immediate problem related to the client's symptoms.

A. Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score. B. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. C. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). D. Administer a second dose of naloxone.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score: While assessing the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is important for evaluating the level of consciousness and neurological status, it does not address the immediate life-threatening issue of severe respiratory depression and hypoxia. The client's critical respiratory status and low oxygen saturation require more urgent intervention.

B) Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion: Preparing for chest tube insertion is not appropriate in this scenario, as the client's symptoms are related to severe respiratory depression rather than a condition that would require chest drainage. Chest tube insertion is indicated for conditions such as pneumothorax or pleural effusion, not for opioid overdose.

C) Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): CPR would be necessary if the client were in cardiac arrest or if there were no pulse and respiratory effort. However, the immediate issue appears to be severe respiratory depression rather than cardiac arrest, so administering a second dose of naloxone is a more appropriate and immediate action to address the cause of the client's condition.

D) Administer a second dose of naloxone: Given the client’s severe respiratory depression and low oxygen saturation despite the initial dose of naloxone, it is crucial to administer a second dose. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose effects, and its administration should be repeated if symptoms persist, ensuring the client’s safety and potentially reversing the opioid’s effects on the respiratory system.

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Which action should the nurse implement to assess the effectiveness of amlodipine?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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